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MRCPsych Paper B Made Easy
    MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

    MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

    Question 1

    Dundrum Crisis Scale primarily assesses:

    • A) Suicidal intent
    • B) Risk of violence
    • C) Functional impairment
    • D) Insight
    • E) Medication adherence

    Question 10

    In evidence-based hierarchy, which study design is ranked HIGHEST?

    • A) Case-control
    • B) Cohort
    • C) Cross-sectional
    • D) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
    • E) Systematic review

    Question 11

    A meta-analysis assumes fixed effects when:

    • A) Study heterogeneity is high
    • B) Effect sizes vary significantly
    • C) Population and interventions are homogeneous
    • D) Publication bias is present
    • E) Sample sizes are small

    Question 12

    Which measure of central tendency is MOST appropriate for skewed data (e.g., income distribution)?

    • A) Mean
    • B) Median
    • C) Mode
    • D) Range
    • E) Standard deviation

    Question 13

    Negative skew in a dataset is indicated by:

    • A) Mean > Mode
    • B) Mean < Mode
    • C) Median = Mean
    • D) Long right tail
    • E) Symmetrical distribution

    Question 14

    A physician decides to work at a rural clinic instead of a city hospital. This decision BEST illustrates:

    • A) Sunk cost fallacy
    • B) Opportunity cost
    • C) Marginal utility
    • D) Diminishing returns
    • E) Cost-benefit analysis

    Question 15

    A researcher validates a new depression screening tool against the PHQ-9. Which type of validity are they assessing?

    • A) Predictive validity
    • B) Concurrent validity
    • C) Content validity
    • D) Construct validity
    • E) Criterion validity

    Question 2

    A clinician adjusts the CAGE cut-off score from 2 to 3. What is the most likely effect on its diagnostic metrics?

    • A) Increased sensitivity, decreased specificity
    • B) Decreased sensitivity, increased specificity
    • C) Increased positive predictive value, unchanged negative predictive value
    • D) Decreased positive predictive value, unchanged sensitivity
    • E) Unchanged specificity, improved reliability

    Question 3

    A researcher conducts a study to evaluate a new depression screening tool. They report a P-value of 0.04. Which statement accurately interprets this result?

    • A) There is a 4% probability the null hypothesis is true.
    • B) The tool’s diagnostic accuracy is 96% reliable.
    • C) There is a 4% chance of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis.
    • D) The effect size is 0.04.
    • E) The study has 96% power.

    Question 4

    A study finds no difference in depression scores between two therapies but reports significant improvements in sleep as a secondary outcome. This MOST likely indicates:

    • A) Reporting bias
    • B) Confounding bias
    • C) Selection bias
    • D) Observer bias
    • E) Random error

    Question 5

    In optimizing the CAGE questionnaire’s likelihood ratio for detecting harmful alcohol use, which cutoff score provides the highest positive likelihood ratio (LR+)?

    • A) 0 (any affirmative response)
    • B) 1
    • C) 2
    • D) 3
    • E) 4

    Question 6

    Which statistical graph is used in meta-analyses to visually assess heterogeneity across studies?

    • A) Forest plot
    • B) Galbraith plot
    • C) Funnel plot
    • D) Scatterplot
    • E) Box plot

    Question 7

    What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Galbraith plot in systematic reviews?

    • A) Compare treatment effects
    • B) Assess publication bias
    • C) Evaluate heterogeneity
    • D) Visualize publication dates
    • E) Calculate odds ratios

    Question 8

    A patient answers “No” to 3 CAGE questions. What is the BEST interpretation?

    • A) High specificity for alcohol dependence
    • B) Moderate sensitivity for hazardous drinking
    • C) Low probability of alcohol use disorder
    • D) Confirmatory evidence of sobriety
    • E) Indication for liver function testing

    Question 17

    A study compares pain levels in three groups: medication A, B, and C. Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Unpaired t-test
    • B) Mann-Whitney U test
    • C) Kruskal-Wallis test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Chi-square test

    Question 18

    A researcher compares baseline characteristics between treatment and control groups. Which test adjusts for confounding variables like age and sex?

    • A) Unpaired t-test
    • B) ANCOVA
    • C) Chi-square test
    • D) Fisher’s exact test
    • E) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

    Question 19

    A psychiatrist compares pre- and post-intervention depression scores in two independent groups. Which test is BEST?

    • A) Paired t-test
    • B) Unpaired t-test
    • C) Mann-Whitney U test
    • D) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
    • E) Repeated-measures ANOVA

    Question 20

    A 2×2 contingency table shows a rare outcome (<5% frequency). Which test is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Chi-square test
    • B) Fisher’s exact test
    • C) McNemar’s test
    • D) Cochran’s Q test
    • E) Mantel-Haenszel test

    Question 21

    A table reports adjusted odds ratio (OR = 1.5) and unadjusted OR = 2.0. Why is the adjusted OR lower?

    • A) Confounding by age
    • B) Smaller sample size
    • C) Type I error
    • D) Measurement bias
    • E) Random variation

    Question 27

    Which study design best examines the association between lithium levels and depression severity?

    • A) Case-control
    • B) Cohort
    • C) Ecological
    • D) Cross-sectional
    • E) Meta-analysis

    Question 28

    Which study design is initially most appropriate to evaluate side effects of a new drug in 3 exposed individuals?

    • A) Case series
    • B) Case-control
    • C) N-of-1 trial
    • D) Cohort
    • E) Randomized controlled trial

    Question 32

    Two radiologists interpreting MRI results are assessing:

    • A. Concurrent validity
    • B. Content validity
    • C. Inter-rater reliability
    • D. Predictive validity
    • E. Internal consistency

    Question 33

    A suicide risk tool’s scores correlate with future suicide attempts. This demonstrates:

    • A. Predictive validity
    • B. Concurrent validity
    • C. Content validity
    • D. Construct validity
    • E. Face validity

    Question 34

    An ROC curve with an AUC of 0.86 and sensitivity of 100 % indicates:

    • A) Poor specificity
    • B) Optimal screening accuracy
    • C) High false-positive rate
    • D) Inadequate discriminative ability
    • E) Superior positive predictive value
    MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

    MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

    Question 1

    Dundrum Crisis Scale primarily assesses:

    • A) Suicidal intent
    • B) Risk of violence
    • C) Functional impairment
    • D) Insight
    • E) Medication adherence

    Question 10

    In evidence-based hierarchy, which study design is ranked HIGHEST?

    • A) Case-control
    • B) Cohort
    • C) Cross-sectional
    • D) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
    • E) Systematic review

    Question 11

    A meta-analysis assumes fixed effects when:

    • A) Study heterogeneity is high
    • B) Effect sizes vary significantly
    • C) Population and interventions are homogeneous
    • D) Publication bias is present
    • E) Sample sizes are small

    Question 12

    Which measure of central tendency is MOST appropriate for skewed data (e.g., income distribution)?

    • A) Mean
    • B) Median
    • C) Mode
    • D) Range
    • E) Standard deviation

    Question 13

    Negative skew in a dataset is indicated by:

    • A) Mean > Mode
    • B) Mean < Mode
    • C) Median = Mean
    • D) Long right tail
    • E) Symmetrical distribution

    Question 14

    A physician decides to work at a rural clinic instead of a city hospital. This decision BEST illustrates:

    • A) Sunk cost fallacy
    • B) Opportunity cost
    • C) Marginal utility
    • D) Diminishing returns
    • E) Cost-benefit analysis

    Question 15

    A researcher validates a new depression screening tool against the PHQ-9. Which type of validity are they assessing?

    • A) Predictive validity
    • B) Concurrent validity
    • C) Content validity
    • D) Construct validity
    • E) Criterion validity

    Question 2

    A clinician adjusts the CAGE cut-off score from 2 to 3. What is the most likely effect on its diagnostic metrics?

    • A) Increased sensitivity, decreased specificity
    • B) Decreased sensitivity, increased specificity
    • C) Increased positive predictive value, unchanged negative predictive value
    • D) Decreased positive predictive value, unchanged sensitivity
    • E) Unchanged specificity, improved reliability

    Question 3

    A researcher conducts a study to evaluate a new depression screening tool. They report a P-value of 0.04. Which statement accurately interprets this result?

    • A) There is a 4% probability the null hypothesis is true.
    • B) The tool’s diagnostic accuracy is 96% reliable.
    • C) There is a 4% chance of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis.
    • D) The effect size is 0.04.
    • E) The study has 96% power.

    Question 4

    A study finds no difference in depression scores between two therapies but reports significant improvements in sleep as a secondary outcome. This MOST likely indicates:

    • A) Reporting bias
    • B) Confounding bias
    • C) Selection bias
    • D) Observer bias
    • E) Random error

    Question 5

    In optimizing the CAGE questionnaire’s likelihood ratio for detecting harmful alcohol use, which cutoff score provides the highest positive likelihood ratio (LR+)?

    • A) 0 (any affirmative response)
    • B) 1
    • C) 2
    • D) 3
    • E) 4

    Question 6

    Which statistical graph is used in meta-analyses to visually assess heterogeneity across studies?

    • A) Forest plot
    • B) Galbraith plot
    • C) Funnel plot
    • D) Scatterplot
    • E) Box plot

    Question 7

    What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Galbraith plot in systematic reviews?

    • A) Compare treatment effects
    • B) Assess publication bias
    • C) Evaluate heterogeneity
    • D) Visualize publication dates
    • E) Calculate odds ratios

    Question 8

    A patient answers “No” to 3 CAGE questions. What is the BEST interpretation?

    • A) High specificity for alcohol dependence
    • B) Moderate sensitivity for hazardous drinking
    • C) Low probability of alcohol use disorder
    • D) Confirmatory evidence of sobriety
    • E) Indication for liver function testing

    Question 17

    A study compares pain levels in three groups: medication A, B, and C. Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Unpaired t-test
    • B) Mann-Whitney U test
    • C) Kruskal-Wallis test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Chi-square test

    Question 18

    A researcher compares baseline characteristics between treatment and control groups. Which test adjusts for confounding variables like age and sex?

    • A) Unpaired t-test
    • B) ANCOVA
    • C) Chi-square test
    • D) Fisher’s exact test
    • E) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

    Question 19

    A psychiatrist compares pre- and post-intervention depression scores in two independent groups. Which test is BEST?

    • A) Paired t-test
    • B) Unpaired t-test
    • C) Mann-Whitney U test
    • D) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
    • E) Repeated-measures ANOVA

    Question 20

    A 2×2 contingency table shows a rare outcome (<5% frequency). Which test is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Chi-square test
    • B) Fisher’s exact test
    • C) McNemar’s test
    • D) Cochran’s Q test
    • E) Mantel-Haenszel test

    Question 21

    A table reports adjusted odds ratio (OR = 1.5) and unadjusted OR = 2.0. Why is the adjusted OR lower?

    • A) Confounding by age
    • B) Smaller sample size
    • C) Type I error
    • D) Measurement bias
    • E) Random variation

    Question 27

    Which study design best examines the association between lithium levels and depression severity?

    • A) Case-control
    • B) Cohort
    • C) Ecological
    • D) Cross-sectional
    • E) Meta-analysis

    Question 28

    Which study design is initially most appropriate to evaluate side effects of a new drug in 3 exposed individuals?

    • A) Case series
    • B) Case-control
    • C) N-of-1 trial
    • D) Cohort
    • E) Randomized controlled trial

    Question 32

    Two radiologists interpreting MRI results are assessing:

    • A. Concurrent validity
    • B. Content validity
    • C. Inter-rater reliability
    • D. Predictive validity
    • E. Internal consistency

    Question 33

    A suicide risk tool’s scores correlate with future suicide attempts. This demonstrates:

    • A. Predictive validity
    • B. Concurrent validity
    • C. Content validity
    • D. Construct validity
    • E. Face validity

    Question 34

    An ROC curve with an AUC of 0.86 and sensitivity of 100 % indicates:

    • A) Poor specificity
    • B) Optimal screening accuracy
    • C) High false-positive rate
    • D) Inadequate discriminative ability
    • E) Superior positive predictive value

    Question 61

    A 38-year-old man with a 10-year history of schizophrenia presents with galactorrhoea and erectile dysfunction. His current regimen includes procyclidine 20 mg daily and flupentixol depot. What is the next best intervention?

    • A. Add amisulpride
    • B. Discontinue procyclidine
    • C. Switch to aripiprazole
    • D. Reduce flupentixol dose
    • E. Add propranolol

    Question 63

    A 50-year-old man with treatment-resistant schizophrenia and type 2 diabetes mellitus develops severe orthostatic hypotension. His current antipsychotic is olanzapine. Which agent is preferable for switching?

    • A. Aripiprazole
    • B. Quetiapine
    • C. Haloperidol
    • D. Clozapine
    • E. Risperidone

    Question 68

    A 16-year-old girl restricts her diet to 800 kcal/day, has a BMI of 17, and believes she is “fat,” but her menstrual cycle remains regular. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

    • A) Anorexia nervosa, restricting type
    • B) Atypical anorexia nervosa
    • C) Bulimia nervosa
    • D) Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID)
    • E) Orthorexia nervosa

    Question 69

    A 22-year-old woman with anorexia nervosa is found to have severe hypokalemia (K⁺ 2.8 mmol/L). Which complication is MOST concerning?

    • A) Respiratory alkalosis
    • B) Cardiac arrhythmias
    • C) Metabolic acidosis
    • D) Muscle weakness
    • E) Rhabdomyolysis

    Question 71

    Prader-Willi syndrome follows which inheritance pattern?

    • A) Autosomal recessive
    • B) Maternal uniparental disomy (UPD) of chromosome 15
    • C) Paternal deletion on chromosome 15q11–q13
    • D) X-linked dominant
    • E) Sporadic mutation

    Question 73

    Genomic imprinting errors explain the etiology of:

    • A) Fragile X syndrome and Prader-Willi syndrome
    • B) Angelman syndrome and Prader-Willi syndrome
    • C) Rett syndrome and Cri-du-chat syndrome
    • D) Down syndrome and Turner syndrome
    • E) Klinefelter syndrome and XYY syndrome

    Question 75

    A newborn weighs 2 kg, has microcephaly, challenging behaviour, and poor memory. Maternal history reveals chronic alcohol use. Which condition is most likely?

    • A) Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)
    • B) Cocaine exposure
    • C) Maternal smoking
    • D) Valproate teratogenicity
    • E) Lead poisoning

    Question 76

    True statement regarding Down syndrome inheritance:

    • A) Robertsonian translocation is sporadic
    • B) Trisomy 21 is maternally inherited
    • C) Mosaicism arises from paternal nondisjunction
    • D) Robertsonian translocation can be inherited
    • E) Maternal age is irrelevant

    Question 78

    ASD heritability is approximately:

    • A) 40%
    • B) 60%
    • C) 90%
    • D) 20%
    • E) 50%

    Question 79

    A 19-year-old with self-harm scars and hyperuricemia is MOST likely to have:

    • A) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
    • B) Prader-Willi syndrome
    • C) Fragile X syndrome
    • D) Smith-Magenis syndrome
    • E) DiGeorge syndrome

    Question 80

    A child with macrocephaly, hypotonia, and avoidance of eye contact is MOST suggestive of:

    • A) Fragile X syndrome
    • B) Prader-Willi syndrome
    • C) Autism spectrum disorder
    • D) Williams syndrome
    • E) Rett syndrome

    Question 81

    A patient with a prominent jaw, self-hugging behavior, and developmental delay is diagnosed with:

    • A) Smith-Magenis syndrome
    • B) Angelman syndrome
    • C) Cri-du-chat syndrome
    • D) Cornelia de Lange syndrome
    • E) Prader-Willi syndrome

    Question 82

    Which feature is characteristic of Prader-Willi syndrome?

    • A) Hyperphagia and obesity
    • B) Hypertonia and small hands
    • C) Seizures and ataxia
    • D) Immune dysfunction
    • E) Macroglossia

    Question 84

    A 10-year-old boy presents with hyperuricemia, self-injurious behavior, and choreoathetosis. Which genetic disorder is most likely?

    • A) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
    • B) Rett syndrome
    • C) Fragile X syndrome
    • D) Prader-Willi syndrome
    • E) Angelman syndrome

    Question 85

    A 6-year-old girl presents with severe intellectual disability, seizures, and a history of losing previously acquired skills (eg, language). She exhibits stereotypic hand-wringing movements and autonomic dysfunction (eg, irregular breathing). Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the MECP2 gene. Which disorder is MOST likely?

    • A) Angelman syndrome
    • B) Rett syndrome
    • C) Down syndrome
    • D) Cri-du-chat syndrome
    • E) Prader-Willi syndrome

    Question 86

    A 4-year-old girl presents with severe intellectual disability, microcephaly, and a high-pitched cry resembling a cat. On examination, she has hypertelorism and a V-shaped palmar crease. Which genetic disorder is MOST likely?

    • A) Down syndrome
    • B) Cri-du-chat syndrome
    • C) Angelman syndrome
    • D) Prader-Willi syndrome
    • E) Williams syndrome

    Question 87

    A 14-year-old girl presents with loss of purposeful hand use, autistic features, and seizures. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the MECP2 gene. What is the diagnosis?

    • A) Rett syndrome
    • B) Angelman syndrome
    • C) Cri-du-chat syndrome
    • D) Down syndrome
    • E) Prader-Willi syndrome

    Question 88

    A 6-year-old girl with intellectual disability and facial papules (adenoma sebaceum) is diagnosed with:

    • A) Neurofibromatosis
    • B) Tuberous sclerosis
    • C) Sturge-Weber syndrome
    • D) Marfan syndrome
    • E) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

    Question 89

    A 28-year-old man with intellectual disability, facial angiofibromas, and renal angiomyolipomas is diagnosed with which inherited disorder?

    • A) Neurofibromatosis type 1
    • B) Tuberous sclerosis
    • C) Fragile X syndrome
    • D) Marfan syndrome
    • E) Rett syndrome

    Question 90

    A 10-year-old boy presents with multiple café-au-lait spots, axillary freckling, and Lisch nodules. Which diagnosis is MOST likely?

    • A) Neurofibromatosis type 1
    • B) Tuberous sclerosis
    • C) Sturge-Weber syndrome
    • D) von Hippel-Lindau disease
    • E) Marfan syndrome

    Question 93

    A meta-analysis uses funnel plot imputation to address publication bias. If missing studies were excluded, the plot would become asymmetric with smaller negative studies missing. Why was imputation performed?

    • A) To correct for type II error inflation
    • B) To balance study arms in a randomized trial
    • C) To improve representativeness of the evidence base
    • D) To reduce heterogeneity among included studies
    • E) To comply with CONSORT reporting standards

    Question 94

    Which guideline provides standards for reporting systematic reviews and meta-analyses?

    • A) CONSORT
    • B) STROBE
    • C) PRISMA
    • D) MOOSE
    • E) STARD

    Question 97

    A heroin-dependent man stockpiles benzodiazepines and laxatives after his wife demands he quit. This behavior aligns with which stage of change?

    • A) Pre-contemplation
    • B) Contemplation
    • C) Preparation
    • D) Action
    • E) Maintenance

    Question 98

    A 16-year-old smoker who insists “I don’t have a problem” best fits which stage of the Transtheoretical Model?

    • A) Contemplation
    • B) Preparation
    • C) Pre-contemplation
    • D) Action
    • E) Relapse

    Question 99

    In Prochaska’s Transtheoretical Model, which phase involves actively maintaining behavior change?

    • A) Pre-contemplation
    • B) Contemplation
    • C) Preparation
    • D) Action
    • E) Maintenance

    Question 100

    A 68-year-old woman with Binswanger’s disease would MOST likely exhibit which MRI finding?

    • A) Hippocampal atrophy
    • B) Cortical infarcts
    • C) Diffuse white matter hyperintensities sparing cortex
    • D) Frontotemporal lobar atrophy
    • E) Striatal atrophy

    Question 101

    A 60-year-old woman with Binswanger’s disease presents with gradual memory decline. Which underlying pathology is MOST likely?

    • A) Beta-amyloid plaques
    • B) Lacunar infarcts
    • C) Frontotemporal lobar degeneration
    • D) Lewy bodies
    • E) Prion protein accumulation

    Question 102

    A 72-year-old man with hypertension and diabetes presents with progressive cognitive decline, gait apraxia, and urinary incontinence. MRI shows periventricular leukoaraiosis and lacunar infarcts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A) Alzheimer’s disease
    • B) Lewy body dementia
    • C) Vascular dementia (Binswanger’s type)
    • D) Frontotemporal dementia
    • E) Normal pressure hydrocephalus

    Question 103

    A 65-year-old woman with vascular dementia exhibits apathy and urinary incontinence. Brain MRI shows periventricular white matter hyperintensities. Which subtype is MOST likely?

    • A) Alzheimer’s disease
    • B) Dementia with Lewy bodies
    • C) Frontotemporal dementia
    • D) Binswanger’s disease
    • E) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

    Question 104

    A 30-year-old man presents with progressive limb ataxia, bilateral nystagmus, and a family history of early myocardial infarction. Genetic testing reveals a trinucleotide repeat expansion on chromosome 9. What is the diagnosis?

    • A) Huntington’s disease
    • B) Friedreich’s ataxia
    • C) Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3
    • D) Myotonic dystrophy
    • E) Wilson’s disease

    Question 105

    A 30-year-old man presents with progressive speech difficulties, gait ataxia, nystagmus, and a family history of a grandfather who died from myocardial infarction at 41. Which genetic disorder is MOST likely?

    • A) Huntington’s disease
    • B) Friedreich’s ataxia
    • C) Spinocerebellar ataxia
    • D) Marfan syndrome
    • E) Wilson’s disease

    Question 106

    A woman with alcohol dependence and chronic back pain on tramadol requires relapse-prevention medication. Which is the safest choice?

    • A) Naltrexone
    • B) Acamprosate
    • C) Diazepam
    • D) Disulfiram
    • E) Buprenorphine

    Question 107

    A patient who has completed opioid detoxification and is now fully abstinent seeks medication to maintain opioid abstinence. Which is most appropriate?

    • A) Acamprosate
    • B) Buprenorphine
    • C) Naltrexone
    • D) Methadone
    • E) Lofexidine

    Question 108

    A patient with a non-dominant (right) parietal lobe lesion most likely presents with:

    • A) Finger agnosia
    • B) Dressing apraxia
    • C) Expressive dysphasia
    • D) Anosognosia
    • E) Gerstmann’s syndrome

    Question 109

    A 63-year-old man with a right parietal stroke is most likely to exhibit:

    • A) Expressive dysphasia
    • B) Dressing apraxia
    • C) Anosognosia
    • D) Finger agnosia
    • E) Visual agnosia

    Question 110

    A 50-year-old woman with frontotemporal dementia (FTD) most commonly shows which speech pattern?

    • A) Fluent aphasia
    • B) Apraxia
    • C) Rigidity
    • D) Visual hallucinations
    • E) Bradykinesia

    Question 111

    A 55-year-old man develops fluent but nonsensical speech with impaired word comprehension and left-temporal atrophy on MRI. Which FTD subtype is this?

    • A) Behavioral variant (Pick’s Disease)
    • B) Primary Progressive Aphasia (Non-fluent/Agrammatic)
    • C) Primary Progressive Aphasia (Semantic)
    • D) Logopenic variant
    • E) Corticobasal syndrome

    Question 112

    A 68-year-old man with FTD develops fluent but meaningless speech and poor comprehension. Which diagnosis fits best?

    • A) Broca’s aphasia
    • B) Wernicke’s aphasia
    • C) Primary progressive aphasia
    • D) Conduction aphasia
    • E) Global aphasia

    Question 113

    A 68-year-old man with FTD speaks slowly, with frequent word-finding pauses, but intact single-word comprehension. Which subtype is this?

    • A) Anomic aphasia
    • B) Non-fluent (primary motor) dysphasia
    • C) Wernicke’s aphasia
    • D) Conduction aphasia
    • E) Global aphasia

    Question 114

    A 70-year-old man with vascular dementia and diabetes mellitus develops delirium. His current medications include risperidone and metformin. Which factor is MOST likely contributing to delirium?

    • A) Hyperglycemia
    • B) Polypharmacy
    • C) Dehydration
    • D) Hypotension
    • E) Infection

    Question 115

    A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia on clozapine has gained 18 kg in 4 months despite stable psychosis. His BMI is now 32 kg/m². Lifestyle counseling has been offered but not adhered to. What is the next most appropriate intervention?

    • A) Reduce clozapine dose
    • B) Initiate metformin
    • C) Add fluoxetine
    • D) Switch to aripiprazole
    • E) Prescribe orlistat

    Question 116

    A patient on haloperidol develops akathisia. The FIRST-line treatment is:

    • A) Lorazepam
    • B) Propranolol
    • C) Benztropine
    • D) Amantadine
    • E) Quetiapine

    Question 117

    A patient on haloperidol develops restlessness and pacing. The first-line treatment is:

    • A) Propranolol
    • B) Tetrabenazine
    • C) Reduce antipsychotic dose
    • D) Lorazepam
    • E) Cyproheptadine

    Question 118

    Compared to bulimia nervosa, which of the following is TRUE?

    • A) Anorexia has a higher lifetime prevalence
    • B) Bulimia has a younger age of onset
    • C) Anorexia carries a higher mortality rate
    • D) Bulimia shows equal male-to-female ratio
    • E) Binge-eating episodes are shorter in anorexia

    Question 119

    Which statement regarding the epidemiology of eating disorders is CORRECT?

    • A) Anorexia nervosa is more prevalent than bulimia nervosa.
    • B) Bulimia nervosa typically has an earlier onset than anorexia nervosa.
    • C) Anorexia nervosa is disproportionately prevalent in lower socioeconomic classes.
    • D) Bulimia nervosa is approximately twice as common as anorexia nervosa.
    • E) Cultural globalization has no impact on the incidence of eating disorders.

    Question 120

    Which statement best describes the prevalence of eating disorders in developed countries?

    • A) Anorexia nervosa is more common than bulimia nervosa
    • B) Bulimia nervosa is more common than anorexia nervosa
    • C) Prevalence is equal across all diagnostic categories
    • D) Incidence is highest in males aged 18–25 years
    • E) Prevalence is static across different socioeconomic strata

    Question 121

    A 36-year-old man with depression struggles with motivation. Behavioral activation therapy for him will focus on:

    • A) Identifying automatic negative thoughts
    • B) Challenging cognitive distortions
    • C) Addressing TRAP (Trigger, Response, Avoidance Pattern) cycles
    • D) Improving sleep hygiene
    • E) Increasing physical exercise

    Question 122

    A 30-year-old woman with moderate intellectual disability (ID) presents with aggression toward staff during hygiene routines. A functional behavior assessment (FBA) identifies that aggression occurs when staff insist on bathing her. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Prescribe risperidone
    • B) Implement a desensitization program
    • C) Apply physical restraints during bathing
    • D) Avoid bathing entirely
    • E) Administer benzodiazepines PRN

    Question 123

    Key difference between sleep terror and nightmare:

    • A) Terror occurs in REM sleep
    • B) Nightmare lacks recall
    • C) Terror lacks recall
    • D) Both occur in NREM
    • E) No physiological arousal

    Question 124

    A 78-year-old woman with Lewy body dementia presents with frequent falls and vivid nightmares of being chased. Which sleep disorder is MOST likely contributing to her symptoms?

    • A) Sleep apnoea
    • B) REM sleep behavior disorder
    • C) Narcolepsy
    • D) Periodic limb movement disorder
    • E) Insomnia

    Question 125

    A 65-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease develops violent leg movements during dreams. His wife reports he shouts and strikes out. Which condition is MOST likely?

    • A) Obstructive sleep apnoea
    • B) REM sleep behavior disorder
    • C) Nocturnal seizures
    • D) Night terrors
    • E) Delirium

    Question 126

    A meta-analysis uses funnel plot imputation to address publication bias. If missing studies were excluded, the plot would become asymmetric with smaller negative studies missing. Why was imputation performed?

    • A) To correct for type II error inflation
    • B) To balance study arms in a randomized trial
    • C) To improve representativeness of the evidence base
    • D) To reduce heterogeneity among included studies
    • E) To comply with CONSORT reporting standards

    Question 127

    A researcher plots study results from multiple RCTs to assess heterogeneity and publication bias. Which graph is MOST suitable?

    • A) Forest plot
    • B) Funnel plot
    • C) Box plot
    • D) Scatter plot
    • E) Kaplan-Meier plot
    MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

    MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

    Question 1

    Dundrum Crisis Scale primarily assesses:

    • A) Suicidal intent
    • B) Risk of violence
    • C) Functional impairment
    • D) Insight
    • E) Medication adherence

    Question 10

    In evidence-based hierarchy, which study design is ranked HIGHEST?

    • A) Case-control
    • B) Cohort
    • C) Cross-sectional
    • D) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
    • E) Systematic review

    Question 11

    A meta-analysis assumes fixed effects when:

    • A) Study heterogeneity is high
    • B) Effect sizes vary significantly
    • C) Population and interventions are homogeneous
    • D) Publication bias is present
    • E) Sample sizes are small

    Question 12

    Which measure of central tendency is MOST appropriate for skewed data (e.g., income distribution)?

    • A) Mean
    • B) Median
    • C) Mode
    • D) Range
    • E) Standard deviation

    Question 13

    Negative skew in a dataset is indicated by:

    • A) Mean > Mode
    • B) Mean < Mode
    • C) Median = Mean
    • D) Long right tail
    • E) Symmetrical distribution

    Question 14

    A physician decides to work at a rural clinic instead of a city hospital. This decision BEST illustrates:

    • A) Sunk cost fallacy
    • B) Opportunity cost
    • C) Marginal utility
    • D) Diminishing returns
    • E) Cost-benefit analysis

    Question 15

    A researcher validates a new depression screening tool against the PHQ-9. Which type of validity are they assessing?

    • A) Predictive validity
    • B) Concurrent validity
    • C) Content validity
    • D) Construct validity
    • E) Criterion validity

    Question 2

    A clinician adjusts the CAGE cut-off score from 2 to 3. What is the most likely effect on its diagnostic metrics?

    • A) Increased sensitivity, decreased specificity
    • B) Decreased sensitivity, increased specificity
    • C) Increased positive predictive value, unchanged negative predictive value
    • D) Decreased positive predictive value, unchanged sensitivity
    • E) Unchanged specificity, improved reliability

    Question 3

    A researcher conducts a study to evaluate a new depression screening tool. They report a P-value of 0.04. Which statement accurately interprets this result?

    • A) There is a 4% probability the null hypothesis is true.
    • B) The tool’s diagnostic accuracy is 96% reliable.
    • C) There is a 4% chance of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis.
    • D) The effect size is 0.04.
    • E) The study has 96% power.

    Question 4

    A study finds no difference in depression scores between two therapies but reports significant improvements in sleep as a secondary outcome. This MOST likely indicates:

    • A) Reporting bias
    • B) Confounding bias
    • C) Selection bias
    • D) Observer bias
    • E) Random error

    Question 5

    In optimizing the CAGE questionnaire’s likelihood ratio for detecting harmful alcohol use, which cutoff score provides the highest positive likelihood ratio (LR+)?

    • A) 0 (any affirmative response)
    • B) 1
    • C) 2
    • D) 3
    • E) 4

    Question 6

    Which statistical graph is used in meta-analyses to visually assess heterogeneity across studies?

    • A) Forest plot
    • B) Galbraith plot
    • C) Funnel plot
    • D) Scatterplot
    • E) Box plot

    Question 7

    What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Galbraith plot in systematic reviews?

    • A) Compare treatment effects
    • B) Assess publication bias
    • C) Evaluate heterogeneity
    • D) Visualize publication dates
    • E) Calculate odds ratios

    Question 8

    A patient answers “No” to 3 CAGE questions. What is the BEST interpretation?

    • A) High specificity for alcohol dependence
    • B) Moderate sensitivity for hazardous drinking
    • C) Low probability of alcohol use disorder
    • D) Confirmatory evidence of sobriety
    • E) Indication for liver function testing

    Question 17

    A study compares pain levels in three groups: medication A, B, and C. Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Unpaired t-test
    • B) Mann-Whitney U test
    • C) Kruskal-Wallis test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Chi-square test

    Question 18

    A researcher compares baseline characteristics between treatment and control groups. Which test adjusts for confounding variables like age and sex?

    • A) Unpaired t-test
    • B) ANCOVA
    • C) Chi-square test
    • D) Fisher’s exact test
    • E) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

    Question 19

    A psychiatrist compares pre- and post-intervention depression scores in two independent groups. Which test is BEST?

    • A) Paired t-test
    • B) Unpaired t-test
    • C) Mann-Whitney U test
    • D) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
    • E) Repeated-measures ANOVA

    Question 20

    A 2×2 contingency table shows a rare outcome (<5% frequency). Which test is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Chi-square test
    • B) Fisher’s exact test
    • C) McNemar’s test
    • D) Cochran’s Q test
    • E) Mantel-Haenszel test

    Question 21

    A table reports adjusted odds ratio (OR = 1.5) and unadjusted OR = 2.0. Why is the adjusted OR lower?

    • A) Confounding by age
    • B) Smaller sample size
    • C) Type I error
    • D) Measurement bias
    • E) Random variation

    Question 27

    Which study design best examines the association between lithium levels and depression severity?

    • A) Case-control
    • B) Cohort
    • C) Ecological
    • D) Cross-sectional
    • E) Meta-analysis

    Question 28

    Which study design is initially most appropriate to evaluate side effects of a new drug in 3 exposed individuals?

    • A) Case series
    • B) Case-control
    • C) N-of-1 trial
    • D) Cohort
    • E) Randomized controlled trial

    Question 32

    Two radiologists interpreting MRI results are assessing:

    • A. Concurrent validity
    • B. Content validity
    • C. Inter-rater reliability
    • D. Predictive validity
    • E. Internal consistency

    Question 33

    A suicide risk tool’s scores correlate with future suicide attempts. This demonstrates:

    • A. Predictive validity
    • B. Concurrent validity
    • C. Content validity
    • D. Construct validity
    • E. Face validity

    Question 34

    An ROC curve with an AUC of 0.86 and sensitivity of 100 % indicates:

    • A) Poor specificity
    • B) Optimal screening accuracy
    • C) High false-positive rate
    • D) Inadequate discriminative ability
    • E) Superior positive predictive value

    Question 35

    A loneliness measure correlates with depression (r = 0.38). What does this indicate?

    • A) Depression causes loneliness
    • B) A moderate positive association exists
    • C) Loneliness predicts depression onset
    • D) Shared measurement bias
    • E) No clinically meaningful relationship

    Question 36

    A study investigates hours of sleep vs. cognitive performance in older adults. The correlation coefficient is reported as –0.85. What does this indicate?

    • A) Strong positive linear relationship
    • B) Weak negative linear relationship
    • C) No relationship
    • D) Strong negative linear relationship
    • E) Perfect inverse relationship

    Question 37

    A depressed inpatient scores highly on both Scale A (100-item) and Scale B (12-item) with Spearman’s ρ = 0.8 (p < 0.01). Which conclusion is MOST valid?

    • A) Scale B is a reliable replacement for Scale A
    • B) Both scales show excellent inter-rater reliability
    • C) A and B are highly positively correlated
    • D) Scale A is more valid than Scale B
    • E) No conclusion can be drawn about validity

    Question 38

    Two depression screening tools show Spearman’s ρ = 0.81. What does this imply?

    • A) High inter-rater reliability
    • B) Strong positive correlation
    • C) Good predictive validity
    • D) High sensitivity
    • E) Low specificity

    Question 39

    An r value of –1 indicates:

    • A) Perfect positive correlation
    • B) Perfect negative correlation
    • C) Moderate positive correlation
    • D) No correlation
    • E) Weak negative correlation

    Question 40

    A researcher finds a correlation coefficient of –0.9 between alcohol consumption and liver enzyme levels. What does this indicate?

    • A) Strong inverse relationship
    • B) Weak direct relationship
    • C) No relationship
    • D) Moderate inverse relationship
    • E) Perfect direct relationship

    Question 41

    In a scatter plot of age vs. cognitive scores, the trend line has an R value of 0.7. What does this indicate?

    • A) Weak positive correlation
    • B) Strong positive correlation
    • C) Weak negative correlation
    • D) Strong negative correlation
    • E) No correlation

    Question 42

    A Kendall’s tau-b coefficient of 0.45 is reported between pain severity (ordinal) and sleep quality (ordinal). What does this indicate?

    • A) No association
    • B) Moderate positive association
    • C) Pain explains 45% of sleep variance
    • D) The association is coincidental
    • E) A parametric test would yield a stronger correlation

    Question 43

    A researcher uses Kendall’s coefficient for depression severity (Likert) vs. quality of life (ordinal). What is the PRIMARY advantage of this method?

    • A) Assumes normal distribution
    • B) Measures non-linear associations
    • C) Handles tied ranks without bias
    • D) Compares group means
    • E) Requires parametric assumptions

    Question 44

    Which statistical test is MOST appropriate for assessing the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two continuous variables?

    • A) Spearman’s rank correlation
    • B) Pearson’s correlation
    • C) Chi-square test
    • D) Student’s t-test
    • E) ANOVA

    Question 45

    Which statistical method is Kendall’s coefficient used for?

    • A) Parametric correlation
    • B) Non-parametric correlation for ordinal data
    • C) Paired t-test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Regression analysis

    Question 46

    A study on childhood sexual abuse vs. adult depression reports r = 0.35 (p = 0.04). Which interpretation is MOST accurate?

    • A) 35% chance abuse causes depression
    • B) Statistically significant association, but causality unclear
    • C) Abuse explains 35% of depression cases
    • D) Result due to chance
    • E) Larger sample would eliminate the association

    Question 47

    A researcher compares baseline HAMD scores across three timepoints. Which statistical method is MOST suitable?

    • A) Repeated-measures ANOVA
    • B) Mann-Whitney U test
    • C) Pearson correlation
    • D) Chi-square test
    • E) Linear regression

    Question 48

    A longitudinal study assesses behavioral problems at ages 3, 5, and 7 linked to bedtime schedules, reporting regression coefficients (β = –0.8, p < 0.01; β = –0.6, p = 0.03; β = –0.4, p = 0.12). Which analysis is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Logistic regression
    • B) Linear regression
    • C) Cox proportional hazards
    • D) Chi-square test
    • E) ANOVA

    Question 49

    A study evaluates blood pressure (BP) and cognitive decline in older adults, adjusting for age. Which statistical method is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Linear regression with BP as the dependent variable
    • B) Logistic regression with cognitive decline as binary
    • C) Multiple linear regression including age as a covariate
    • D) Spearman’s correlation
    • E) ANOVA

    Question 50

    A study analyzes time-to-event data for patients with heart failure. Which statistical method is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Cox proportional hazards model
    • B) Logistic regression
    • C) Linear regression
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Chi-square test

    Question 51

    Why is logistic regression used in a study predicting diabetes diagnosis (binary outcome)?

    • A) To model continuous outcomes
    • B) To handle multicollinearity
    • C) To assess proportional hazards
    • D) To predict binary outcomes
    • E) To adjust for confounding

    Question 52

    Two radiologists interpret MRI results independently. Which property are they assessing?

    • A) Concurrent validity
    • B) Content validity
    • C) Inter-rater reliability
    • D) Predictive validity
    • E) Internal consistency

    Question 53

    A suicide-risk tool’s scores correlate with future suicide attempts. This demonstrates:

    • A) Predictive validity
    • B) Concurrent validity
    • C) Content validity
    • D) Construct validity
    • E) Face validity

    Question 54

    A researcher validates a new depression screening tool against the PHQ-9 (administered simultaneously). Which validity is being assessed?

    • A) Predictive validity
    • B) Concurrent validity
    • C) Content validity
    • D) Construct validity
    • E) Criterion validity

    Question 55

    A new anxiety scale is tested alongside clinician diagnoses. Which validity ensures it covers all aspects of anxiety?

    • A) Concurrent validity
    • B) Predictive validity
    • C) Content validity
    • D) Discriminant validity
    • E) Test-retest validity

    Question 56

    A clinician administers a new bipolar-disorder screener and the SCID concurrently. Which validity is assessed?

    • A) Predictive validity
    • B) Concurrent validity
    • C) Construct validity
    • D) Content validity
    • E) Divergent validity

    Question 57

    An ADHD screener shows high correlation with autism-spectrum measures. Which validity is MOST compromised?

    • A) Convergent validity
    • B) Divergent validity
    • C) Criterion validity
    • D) Internal consistency
    • E) Face validity

    Question 58

    If a new depression scale shows perfect correlation with an existing validated tool, which validity is demonstrated?

    • A) Face validity
    • B) Predictive validity
    • C) Concurrent validity
    • D) Construct validity
    • E) Ecological validity

    Question 59

    A researcher validates a new depression screening tool by comparing its scores to a clinician’s diagnosis made simultaneously. This evaluates which type of validity?

    • A) Predictive
    • B) Concurrent
    • C) Content
    • D) Construct
    • E) Criterion-related

    Question 60

    A researcher validates a new depression screening tool by administering it alongside an established, validated questionnaire during the same assessment period. This method primarily evaluates:

    • A) Predictive validity
    • B) Concurrent validity
    • C) Content validity
    • D) Construct validity
    • E) Incremental validity

    Question 61

    In a longitudinal study, scores on a cognitive test administered at age 10 are correlated with academic achievement at age 20. This design primarily examines:

    • A) Content validity
    • B) Predictive validity
    • C) Concurrent validity
    • D) Divergent validity
    • E) Internal consistency

    Question 62

    What is the BEST screening tool for alcohol use disorders in primary care?

    • A) GGT
    • B) CDT
    • C) MCV
    • D) AUDIT
    • E) Breathalyser

    Question 63

    Which therapy routinely incorporates telephone contact as a core component?

    • A) Dialectical behaviour therapy
    • B) Cognitive behavioural therapy
    • C) Psychoanalytic psychotherapy
    • D) Interpersonal psychotherapy
    • E) Cognitive analytic therapy

    Question 64

    Past family therapy approaches were most influenced by which therapeutic tradition?

    • A) Cognitive-behavioural therapy
    • B) Psychodynamic psychotherapy
    • C) Humanistic therapy
    • D) Systemic therapy
    • E) Solution-focused therapy

    Question 65

    Sequential diagrammatic formulation (SD), a tool in CAT, involves which three stages?

    • A) Reformulation, recognition, revision
    • B) Cognitive restructuring, exposure, response prevention
    • C) Psychoeducation, validation, integration
    • D) Behavioral activation, mindfulness, relapse prevention
    • E) Transference-focused, countertransference analysis

    Question 66

    The “3 R’s” in Cognitive Analytic Therapy are:

    • A) Reflection, Reconnection, Resolution
    • B) Reformulation, Recognition, Revision
    • C) Relabeling, Restructuring, Reinforcement
    • D) Regression, Reintegration, Realignment
    • E) Reassurance, Responsibility, Reconciliation

    Question 67

    Which of the following is a core “R” in CAT?

    • A) Reformulation
    • B) Role Reversal
    • C) Recognition
    • D) Revision
    • E) Recall

    Question 68

    Which intervention is MOST effective for emotional dysregulation in borderline personality disorder?

    • A) Flooding
    • B) Systematic desensitization
    • C) Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
    • D) Cognitive‐behavioural therapy (CBT)
    • E) Risperidone

    Question 69

    A core technique in Motivational Interviewing is:

    • A) Rolling with resistance
    • B) Amplifying cognitive dissonance
    • C) Contingency management
    • D) Developing discrepancy
    • E) Avoidance restructuring

    Question 70

    A motivational interviewing approach to substance misuse would LEAST likely involve:

    • A) Exploring ambivalence
    • B) Rolling with resistance
    • C) Providing tangible rewards for abstinence
    • D) Eliciting intrinsic motivation
    • E) Collaborative goal-setting

    Question 71

    A psychotherapy model focusing on past family experiences is:

    • A) Couples behaviour therapy
    • B) Psychodynamic psychotherapy
    • C) Cognitive-behavioural therapy
    • D) Family systems therapy
    • E) Solution-focused therapy

    Question 72

    Regarding brief IPT, which statement is CORRECT?

    • A) Sessions last 90 minutes weekly for 6 weeks
    • B) Focuses on past traumas
    • C) Requires 1-hour sessions for 12–16 weeks
    • D) Avoids transference work
    • E) Uses cognitive restructuring

    Question 73

    IPT for depression primarily focuses on addressing:

    • A) Cognitive distortions
    • B) Grief and interpersonal role disputes
    • C) Behavioral activation
    • D) Sleep hygiene
    • E) Trauma processing

    Question 74

    IPT for grief focuses on:

    • A) Cognitive restructuring of negative thoughts
    • B) Enhancing interpersonal relationships and social support
    • C) Behavioral activation through exposure
    • D) Mindfulness and acceptance
    • E) Psychodynamic exploration of past trauma

    Question 75

    A patient displays intense anger toward their therapist, accusing them of betrayal. This MOST likely reflects:

    • A) Countertransference
    • B) Transference
    • C) Projection
    • D) Acting out
    • E) Resistance

    Question 76

    A therapist feels intense anger toward a patient discussing abusive relationships. This emotional reaction is best termed:

    • A) Transference
    • B) Countertransference
    • C) Projection
    • D) Displacement
    • E) Reaction formation

    Question 77

    Countertransference refers to:

    • A) The patient’s feelings toward the therapist
    • B) The therapist’s unconscious emotional response to the patient
    • C) Transference of past relationships onto the therapist
    • D) Resistance to treatment
    • E) A defense mechanism

    Question 78

    A 28-year-old woman with congenital long QT syndrome presents with syncope. Her ECG reveals a significantly prolonged QTc interval. Which electrolyte disturbance is most likely contributing to this finding?

    • A. Hypocalcaemia
    • B. Hyperkalaemia
    • C. Hypomagnesaemia
    • D. Hypophosphataemia
    • E. Hypercalcaemia

    Question 79

    A 70-year-old woman with Alzheimer's dementia taking donepezil faints. Her ECG shows regular sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 45 bpm. What is the MOST likely cause?

    • A. Sinus tachycardia
    • B. Sinus bradycardia
    • C. Atrial fibrillation
    • D. Ventricular tachycardia
    • E. Complete heart block

    Question 80

    An 85-year-old man on donepezil develops dizziness and a sinus bradycardia (HR 45 bpm). Which ECG finding is MOST consistent with his medication?

    • A. QT prolongation
    • B. Sinus bradycardia
    • C. Atrial fibrillation
    • D. ST elevation
    • E. Right axis deviation

    Question 81

    An 80-year-old on donepezil 10 mg reports nausea and dizziness. The next step is:

    • A. Add an antiemetic
    • B. Switch to rivastigmine
    • C. Reduce dose to 5 mg
    • D. Discontinue memantine
    • E. Initiate beta-blockers

    Question 82

    A patient on lithium presents with polyuria, tremor, and myoclonus. Serum lithium level is 1.5 mmol/L. Which toxicity sign is MOST concerning?

    • A) Polyuria (>3 L/day)
    • B) Fine tremor
    • C) Myoclonic jerks
    • D) Abdominal pain
    • E) Confusion

    Question 83

    A patient with lithium toxicity presents with coarse tremors and nystagmus. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a feature?

    • A) Ataxia
    • B) Dysarthria
    • C) Hyporeflexia
    • D) Confusion
    • E) Seizures

    Question 84

    Severe lithium toxicity is MOST likely associated with:

    • A) Coarse tremor, confusion, and GI upset
    • B) Bradycardia, hypotension, and seizures
    • C) Hyperreflexia, muscle rigidity, and hyperthermia
    • D) Ataxia, nystagmus, and slurred speech
    • E) Polyuria, polydipsia, and renal failure

    Question 85

    Which medication is MOST likely to potentiate the therapeutic effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) by lowering the seizure threshold?

    • A) Lithium
    • B) Clozapine
    • C) Lamotrigine
    • D) Escitalopram
    • E) Valproate

    Question 86

    A 55-year-old man on clozapine 1,200 µ g/day develops generalized tonic‐clonic seizures. What is the NEXT step?

    • A) Stop clozapine immediately
    • B) Add valproate
    • C) Reduce clozapine dose
    • D) Start phenytoin
    • E) Monitor without intervention

    Question 87

    Which antidepressant should be avoided with tamoxifen in a breast cancer survivor?

    • A) Amitriptyline
    • B) Fluoxetine
    • C) Sertraline
    • D) Mirtazapine
    • E) Venlafaxine

    Question 88

    Antipsychotic choice for an 80-year-old with eGFR >25 mL/min:

    • A. Olanzapine
    • B. Haloperidol
    • C. Amisulpride
    • D. Sulpiride
    • E. Quetiapine

    Question 89

    A 72-year-old man with Lewy Body Dementia develops rigidity and confusion after starting risperidone. What is the NEXT step?

    • A) Continue risperidone
    • B) Switch to quetiapine
    • C) Add benztropine
    • D) Discontinue antipsychotics
    • E) Initiate electroconvulsive therapy

    Question 90

    A patient with chronic alcohol use presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and nystagmus. Which receptor system is MOST implicated in their neurological symptoms?

    • A. GABA-A and NMDA
    • B. Dopamine D2
    • C. Serotonin 5-HT2A
    • D. Acetylcholine
    • E. Glutamate AMPA
    MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

    MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

    Question 1

    Dundrum Crisis Scale primarily assesses:

    • A) Suicidal intent
    • B) Risk of violence
    • C) Functional impairment
    • D) Insight
    • E) Medication adherence

    Question 10

    In evidence-based hierarchy, which study design is ranked HIGHEST?

    • A) Case-control
    • B) Cohort
    • C) Cross-sectional
    • D) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
    • E) Systematic review

    Question 11

    A meta-analysis assumes fixed effects when:

    • A) Study heterogeneity is high
    • B) Effect sizes vary significantly
    • C) Population and interventions are homogeneous
    • D) Publication bias is present
    • E) Sample sizes are small

    Question 12

    Which measure of central tendency is MOST appropriate for skewed data (e.g., income distribution)?

    • A) Mean
    • B) Median
    • C) Mode
    • D) Range
    • E) Standard deviation

    Question 13

    Negative skew in a dataset is indicated by:

    • A) Mean > Mode
    • B) Mean < Mode
    • C) Median = Mean
    • D) Long right tail
    • E) Symmetrical distribution

    Question 14

    A physician decides to work at a rural clinic instead of a city hospital. This decision BEST illustrates:

    • A) Sunk cost fallacy
    • B) Opportunity cost
    • C) Marginal utility
    • D) Diminishing returns
    • E) Cost-benefit analysis

    Question 15

    A researcher validates a new depression screening tool against the PHQ-9. Which type of validity are they assessing?

    • A) Predictive validity
    • B) Concurrent validity
    • C) Content validity
    • D) Construct validity
    • E) Criterion validity

    Question 2

    A clinician adjusts the CAGE cut-off score from 2 to 3. What is the most likely effect on its diagnostic metrics?

    • A) Increased sensitivity, decreased specificity
    • B) Decreased sensitivity, increased specificity
    • C) Increased positive predictive value, unchanged negative predictive value
    • D) Decreased positive predictive value, unchanged sensitivity
    • E) Unchanged specificity, improved reliability

    Question 3

    A researcher conducts a study to evaluate a new depression screening tool. They report a P-value of 0.04. Which statement accurately interprets this result?

    • A) There is a 4% probability the null hypothesis is true.
    • B) The tool’s diagnostic accuracy is 96% reliable.
    • C) There is a 4% chance of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis.
    • D) The effect size is 0.04.
    • E) The study has 96% power.

    Question 4

    A study finds no difference in depression scores between two therapies but reports significant improvements in sleep as a secondary outcome. This MOST likely indicates:

    • A) Reporting bias
    • B) Confounding bias
    • C) Selection bias
    • D) Observer bias
    • E) Random error

    Question 5

    In optimizing the CAGE questionnaire’s likelihood ratio for detecting harmful alcohol use, which cutoff score provides the highest positive likelihood ratio (LR+)?

    • A) 0 (any affirmative response)
    • B) 1
    • C) 2
    • D) 3
    • E) 4

    Question 6

    Which statistical graph is used in meta-analyses to visually assess heterogeneity across studies?

    • A) Forest plot
    • B) Galbraith plot
    • C) Funnel plot
    • D) Scatterplot
    • E) Box plot

    Question 7

    What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Galbraith plot in systematic reviews?

    • A) Compare treatment effects
    • B) Assess publication bias
    • C) Evaluate heterogeneity
    • D) Visualize publication dates
    • E) Calculate odds ratios

    Question 8

    A patient answers “No” to 3 CAGE questions. What is the BEST interpretation?

    • A) High specificity for alcohol dependence
    • B) Moderate sensitivity for hazardous drinking
    • C) Low probability of alcohol use disorder
    • D) Confirmatory evidence of sobriety
    • E) Indication for liver function testing

    Question 17

    A study compares pain levels in three groups: medication A, B, and C. Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Unpaired t-test
    • B) Mann-Whitney U test
    • C) Kruskal-Wallis test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Chi-square test

    Question 18

    A researcher compares baseline characteristics between treatment and control groups. Which test adjusts for confounding variables like age and sex?

    • A) Unpaired t-test
    • B) ANCOVA
    • C) Chi-square test
    • D) Fisher’s exact test
    • E) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

    Question 19

    A psychiatrist compares pre- and post-intervention depression scores in two independent groups. Which test is BEST?

    • A) Paired t-test
    • B) Unpaired t-test
    • C) Mann-Whitney U test
    • D) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
    • E) Repeated-measures ANOVA

    Question 20

    A 2×2 contingency table shows a rare outcome (<5% frequency). Which test is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Chi-square test
    • B) Fisher’s exact test
    • C) McNemar’s test
    • D) Cochran’s Q test
    • E) Mantel-Haenszel test

    Question 21

    A table reports adjusted odds ratio (OR = 1.5) and unadjusted OR = 2.0. Why is the adjusted OR lower?

    • A) Confounding by age
    • B) Smaller sample size
    • C) Type I error
    • D) Measurement bias
    • E) Random variation

    Question 27

    Which study design best examines the association between lithium levels and depression severity?

    • A) Case-control
    • B) Cohort
    • C) Ecological
    • D) Cross-sectional
    • E) Meta-analysis

    Question 28

    Which study design is initially most appropriate to evaluate side effects of a new drug in 3 exposed individuals?

    • A) Case series
    • B) Case-control
    • C) N-of-1 trial
    • D) Cohort
    • E) Randomized controlled trial

    Question 32

    Two radiologists interpreting MRI results are assessing:

    • A. Concurrent validity
    • B. Content validity
    • C. Inter-rater reliability
    • D. Predictive validity
    • E. Internal consistency

    Question 33

    A suicide risk tool’s scores correlate with future suicide attempts. This demonstrates:

    • A. Predictive validity
    • B. Concurrent validity
    • C. Content validity
    • D. Construct validity
    • E. Face validity

    Question 34

    An ROC curve with an AUC of 0.86 and sensitivity of 100 % indicates:

    • A) Poor specificity
    • B) Optimal screening accuracy
    • C) High false-positive rate
    • D) Inadequate discriminative ability
    • E) Superior positive predictive value

    Question 35

    A researcher surveys 500 adults about their diet and exercise habits on a single day. This is an example of which study type?

    • A) Longitudinal cohort
    • B) Cross-sectional
    • C) Case-control
    • D) Ecological
    • E) Quasi-experimental

    Question 36

    To evaluate the impact of parental neglect on childhood depression prospectively while minimising recall bias, which design is best?

    • A) Cross-sectional survey
    • B) Retrospective case-control study
    • C) Prospective cohort study
    • D) Randomized controlled trial
    • E) Ecological study

    Question 37

    A study compares ECT use in patients with and without a history of stroke; expected cell sizes are < 5. Which test is most suitable?

    • A. Chi-square test
    • B. Fisher’s exact test
    • C. t-test
    • D. Mann-Whitney U test
    • E. ANOVA

    Question 38

    A clinician raises the CAGE threshold from ≥ 2 to ≥ 3 “yes” responses. Primary effect?

    • A. ↑ Sensitivity, ↓ Specificity
    • B. ↓ Sensitivity, ↑ Specificity
    • C. ↑ PPV, unchanged sensitivity
    • D. ↓ NPV, unchanged specificity
    • E. Unchanged sensitivity, ↑ Specificity

    Question 39

    In a 10 % prevalence setting, a test with 95 % sensitivity and 5 % false-positive rate (specificity = 95 %) yields what post-test probability after a positive?

    • A. 58 %
    • B. 68 %
    • C. 70 %
    • D. 85 %
    • E. 95 %

    Question 40

    A depression screen has Sens = 90 %, Spec = 75 %. Positive likelihood ratio?

    • A. 1.2
    • B. 3.0
    • C. 4.0
    • D. 6.0
    • E. 9.0

    Question 41

    A diabetes screen with NPV = 95 % means:

    • A. 95 % of patients without diabetes will test negative
    • B. 95% of patients with diabetes will test positive
    • C. There is a 95% chance of a false positive
    • D. The test is 95% reliable
    • E. The positive predictive value is 5%

    Question 42

    For a test with Sens = 90 % and Spec = 95 %, likelihood ratios are:

    • A) +LR 18, −LR 0.10
    • B) +LR 9, −LR 0.05
    • C) +LR 18, −LR 0.05
    • D) +LR 9, −LR 0.10
    • E) +LR 5, −LR 0.15

    Question 43

    Delirium screen Sens = 60 %, Spec = 80 %. Negative LR?

    • A. 0.5
    • B. 1.25
    • C. 1.67
    • D. 2.5
    • E. 0.25

    Question 44

    A study’s ROC plots specificity (not 1 − specificity) on the x-axis; AUC = 0.8. This indicates:

    • A. High diagnostic accuracy
    • B. Low sensitivity
    • C. Poor specificity
    • D. Inadequate discriminative ability
    • E. Need for more data

    Question 46

    Which guideline ensures transparent reporting of sensitivity/specificity in diagnostic studies?

    • A. CONSORT
    • B. PRISMA
    • C. STARD
    • D. MOOSE
    • E. TREND

    Question 47

    The probability that a patient with a negative test truly lacks the disease is:

    • A) Sensitivity
    • B) Specificity
    • C) PPV
    • D) NPV
    • E) Likelihood ratio

    Question 48

    A forest plot shows a pooled effect size with a narrow confidence interval crossing the null. What does this suggest?

    • A) High heterogeneity among studies
    • B) Statistically insignificant result
    • C) Strong evidence for efficacy
    • D) Publication bias
    • E) Large sample size

    Question 49

    A study compares two treatments for depression. Group A (n=214) receives mirtazapine, with 46/214 dropouts due to side effects; Group B (n=217) receives placebo, with 9/217 dropouts. What is the Number Needed to Harm (NNH)?

    • A) 5
    • B) 6
    • C) 7
    • D) 8
    • E) 9

    Question 50

    A depressed inpatient scores highly on both Scale A (100-item) and Scale B (12-item) with Spearman's ρ = 0.8 (p < 0.01). Which conclusion is MOST valid?

    • A. Scale B is a reliable replacement for Scale A
    • B. Both scales show excellent inter-rater reliability
    • C. A and B are highly linearly correlated
    • D. Scale A is more valid than Scale B
    • E. No conclusion can be drawn about validity

    Question 51

    A researcher compares mean cognitive scores across three groups (healthy controls, mild cognitive impairment, and Alzheimer's disease). Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

    • A. Wilcoxon signed-rank test
    • B. ANOVA
    • C. Chi-square test
    • D. Mann-Whitney U test
    • E. Kruskal-Wallis test

    Question 52

    A study evaluates pain relief in 15 patients before and after acupuncture. Which test is MOST suitable?

    • A. Paired t-test
    • B. Wilcoxon signed-rank (rank sum) test
    • C. Chi-square test
    • D. Student's t-test
    • E. Regression analysis

    Question 53

    A psychiatrist compares smoking rates (smokers vs. non-smokers) in patients with schizophrenia vs. controls. Which test is MOST appropriate?

    • A. Chi-square test
    • B. ANOVA
    • C. Mann-Whitney U test
    • D. t-test
    • E. Regression analysis

    Question 54

    Which statistical test compares means across three independent ordinal groups (e.g., consultants, nurses, patients)?

    • A) Paired t-test
    • B) One-way ANOVA
    • C) Kruskal-Wallis test
    • D) Chi-square test
    • E) Logistic regression

    Question 55

    A researcher compares baseline Hamilton Depression Rating Scale scores across three timepoints. Which statistical method is MOST suitable?

    • A) Repeated-measures ANOVA
    • B) Mann-Whitney U test
    • C) Pearson correlation
    • D) Chi-square test
    • E) Linear regression

    Question 56

    Which statistical test is MOST appropriate for analyzing data that follows a normal distribution?

    • A) Mann-Whitney U test
    • B) Kruskal-Wallis test
    • C) Parametric ANOVA
    • D) Spearman’s rank correlation
    • E) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

    Question 57

    A study compares mortality rates between two intensive care units using a dichotomous outcome (survived/deceased). Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Paired t-test
    • B) Mann-Whitney U test
    • C) Chi-square test
    • D) Pearson correlation
    • E) ANOVA

    Question 58

    A researcher compares mean blood glucose levels between three groups (healthy controls, prediabetes, and diabetes). Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

    • A) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
    • B) ANOVA
    • C) Chi-square test
    • D) Mann-Whitney U test
    • E) Kruskal-Wallis test

    Question 59

    A study evaluates pain relief in 20 patients before and after acupuncture. Which test is MOST suitable?

    • A) Paired t-test
    • B) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
    • C) Chi-square test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Student’s t-test

    Question 60

    A study of 1,054 schizophrenia patients categorizes them into three groups, including suicide attempters. Which statistical test is MOST appropriate to evaluate suicide risk factors?

    • A) Chi-square test
    • B) t-test
    • C) ANOVA
    • D) Logistic regression
    • E) Cox proportional hazards model

    Question 61

    A trial compares CBT and DBT for binge-eating disorder. Which statistical test is most appropriate to compare remission rates (non-normal distribution)?

    • A) Mann-Whitney U test
    • B) Independent t-test
    • C) Chi-square test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Pearson correlation

    Question 62

    Which statistical test is MOST appropriate for analyzing the relationship between two ordinal variables?

    • A) Pearson’s correlation
    • B) Spearman’s rank correlation
    • C) Student’s t-test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Chi-square test

    Question 63

    Which statistical test is used to compare proportions between two categorical groups (e.g., treatment success vs. failure)?

    • A) Paired t-test
    • B) Mann-Whitney U test
    • C) Chi-square test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Pearson correlation

    Question 64

    Three electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) modalities (bilateral, unilateral, ultrabrief) are compared for treatment-resistant depression. The outcome is remission rates. Which statistical test is MOST suitable?

    • A) Paired t-test
    • B) Mann-Whitney U test
    • C) Chi-square test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Pearson correlation

    Question 65

    A patient with chronic alcohol use presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and nystagmus. Which receptor system is MOST implicated in their neurological symptoms?

    • A) GABA-A and NMDA
    • B) Dopamine D2
    • C) Serotonin 5-HT2A
    • D) Acetylcholine
    • E) Glutamate AMPA

    Question 66

    Which statistical test is MOST appropriate to compare categorical data (ECT vs. stroke occurrence) between two independent groups?

    • A) Pearson’s chi-square
    • B) Student’s t-test
    • C) Mann-Whitney U test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Fisher’s exact test

    Question 67

    Which statistical test does NOT assume normal data distribution?

    • A) Student’s t-test
    • B) Pearson’s correlation
    • C) Mann-Whitney U test
    • D) ANOVA
    • E) Linear regression
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