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MRCPsych Paper B 2.0 Made Easy
MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

Question 1

Dundrum Crisis Scale primarily assesses:

  • A) Suicidal intent
  • B) Risk of violence
  • C) Functional impairment
  • D) Insight
  • E) Medication adherence

Question 10

In evidence-based hierarchy, which study design is ranked HIGHEST?

  • A) Case-control
  • B) Cohort
  • C) Cross-sectional
  • D) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
  • E) Systematic review

Question 11

A meta-analysis assumes fixed effects when:

  • A) Study heterogeneity is high
  • B) Effect sizes vary significantly
  • C) Population and interventions are homogeneous
  • D) Publication bias is present
  • E) Sample sizes are small

Question 12

Which measure of central tendency is MOST appropriate for skewed data (e.g., income distribution)?

  • A) Mean
  • B) Median
  • C) Mode
  • D) Range
  • E) Standard deviation

Question 13

Negative skew in a dataset is indicated by:

  • A) Mean > Mode
  • B) Mean < Mode
  • C) Median = Mean
  • D) Long right tail
  • E) Symmetrical distribution

Question 14

A physician decides to work at a rural clinic instead of a city hospital. This decision BEST illustrates:

  • A) Sunk cost fallacy
  • B) Opportunity cost
  • C) Marginal utility
  • D) Diminishing returns
  • E) Cost-benefit analysis

Question 15

A researcher validates a new depression screening tool against the PHQ-9. Which type of validity are they assessing?

  • A) Predictive validity
  • B) Concurrent validity
  • C) Content validity
  • D) Construct validity
  • E) Criterion validity

Question 2

A clinician adjusts the CAGE cut-off score from 2 to 3. What is the most likely effect on its diagnostic metrics?

  • A) Increased sensitivity, decreased specificity
  • B) Decreased sensitivity, increased specificity
  • C) Increased positive predictive value, unchanged negative predictive value
  • D) Decreased positive predictive value, unchanged sensitivity
  • E) Unchanged specificity, improved reliability

Question 3

A researcher conducts a study to evaluate a new depression screening tool. They report a P-value of 0.04. Which statement accurately interprets this result?

  • A) There is a 4% probability the null hypothesis is true.
  • B) The tool’s diagnostic accuracy is 96% reliable.
  • C) There is a 4% chance of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis.
  • D) The effect size is 0.04.
  • E) The study has 96% power.

Question 4

A study finds no difference in depression scores between two therapies but reports significant improvements in sleep as a secondary outcome. This MOST likely indicates:

  • A) Reporting bias
  • B) Confounding bias
  • C) Selection bias
  • D) Observer bias
  • E) Random error

Question 5

In optimizing the CAGE questionnaire’s likelihood ratio for detecting harmful alcohol use, which cutoff score provides the highest positive likelihood ratio (LR+)?

  • A) 0 (any affirmative response)
  • B) 1
  • C) 2
  • D) 3
  • E) 4

Question 6

Which statistical graph is used in meta-analyses to visually assess heterogeneity across studies?

  • A) Forest plot
  • B) Galbraith plot
  • C) Funnel plot
  • D) Scatterplot
  • E) Box plot

Question 7

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Galbraith plot in systematic reviews?

  • A) Compare treatment effects
  • B) Assess publication bias
  • C) Evaluate heterogeneity
  • D) Visualize publication dates
  • E) Calculate odds ratios

Question 8

A patient answers “No” to 3 CAGE questions. What is the BEST interpretation?

  • A) High specificity for alcohol dependence
  • B) Moderate sensitivity for hazardous drinking
  • C) Low probability of alcohol use disorder
  • D) Confirmatory evidence of sobriety
  • E) Indication for liver function testing

Question 17

A study compares pain levels in three groups: medication A, B, and C. Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Unpaired t-test
  • B) Mann-Whitney U test
  • C) Kruskal-Wallis test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Chi-square test

Question 18

A researcher compares baseline characteristics between treatment and control groups. Which test adjusts for confounding variables like age and sex?

  • A) Unpaired t-test
  • B) ANCOVA
  • C) Chi-square test
  • D) Fisher’s exact test
  • E) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

Question 19

A psychiatrist compares pre- and post-intervention depression scores in two independent groups. Which test is BEST?

  • A) Paired t-test
  • B) Unpaired t-test
  • C) Mann-Whitney U test
  • D) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
  • E) Repeated-measures ANOVA

Question 20

A 2×2 contingency table shows a rare outcome (<5% frequency). Which test is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Chi-square test
  • B) Fisher’s exact test
  • C) McNemar’s test
  • D) Cochran’s Q test
  • E) Mantel-Haenszel test

Question 21

A table reports adjusted odds ratio (OR = 1.5) and unadjusted OR = 2.0. Why is the adjusted OR lower?

  • A) Confounding by age
  • B) Smaller sample size
  • C) Type I error
  • D) Measurement bias
  • E) Random variation

Question 27

Which study design best examines the association between lithium levels and depression severity?

  • A) Case-control
  • B) Cohort
  • C) Ecological
  • D) Cross-sectional
  • E) Meta-analysis

Question 28

Which study design is initially most appropriate to evaluate side effects of a new drug in 3 exposed individuals?

  • A) Case series
  • B) Case-control
  • C) N-of-1 trial
  • D) Cohort
  • E) Randomized controlled trial

Question 32

Two radiologists interpreting MRI results are assessing:

  • A. Concurrent validity
  • B. Content validity
  • C. Inter-rater reliability
  • D. Predictive validity
  • E. Internal consistency

Question 33

A suicide risk tool’s scores correlate with future suicide attempts. This demonstrates:

  • A. Predictive validity
  • B. Concurrent validity
  • C. Content validity
  • D. Construct validity
  • E. Face validity

Question 34

An ROC curve with an AUC of 0.86 and sensitivity of 100 % indicates:

  • A) Poor specificity
  • B) Optimal screening accuracy
  • C) High false-positive rate
  • D) Inadequate discriminative ability
  • E) Superior positive predictive value
MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

Question 1

Dundrum Crisis Scale primarily assesses:

  • A) Suicidal intent
  • B) Risk of violence
  • C) Functional impairment
  • D) Insight
  • E) Medication adherence

Question 10

In evidence-based hierarchy, which study design is ranked HIGHEST?

  • A) Case-control
  • B) Cohort
  • C) Cross-sectional
  • D) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
  • E) Systematic review

Question 11

A meta-analysis assumes fixed effects when:

  • A) Study heterogeneity is high
  • B) Effect sizes vary significantly
  • C) Population and interventions are homogeneous
  • D) Publication bias is present
  • E) Sample sizes are small

Question 12

Which measure of central tendency is MOST appropriate for skewed data (e.g., income distribution)?

  • A) Mean
  • B) Median
  • C) Mode
  • D) Range
  • E) Standard deviation

Question 13

Negative skew in a dataset is indicated by:

  • A) Mean > Mode
  • B) Mean < Mode
  • C) Median = Mean
  • D) Long right tail
  • E) Symmetrical distribution

Question 14

A physician decides to work at a rural clinic instead of a city hospital. This decision BEST illustrates:

  • A) Sunk cost fallacy
  • B) Opportunity cost
  • C) Marginal utility
  • D) Diminishing returns
  • E) Cost-benefit analysis

Question 15

A researcher validates a new depression screening tool against the PHQ-9. Which type of validity are they assessing?

  • A) Predictive validity
  • B) Concurrent validity
  • C) Content validity
  • D) Construct validity
  • E) Criterion validity

Question 2

A clinician adjusts the CAGE cut-off score from 2 to 3. What is the most likely effect on its diagnostic metrics?

  • A) Increased sensitivity, decreased specificity
  • B) Decreased sensitivity, increased specificity
  • C) Increased positive predictive value, unchanged negative predictive value
  • D) Decreased positive predictive value, unchanged sensitivity
  • E) Unchanged specificity, improved reliability

Question 3

A researcher conducts a study to evaluate a new depression screening tool. They report a P-value of 0.04. Which statement accurately interprets this result?

  • A) There is a 4% probability the null hypothesis is true.
  • B) The tool’s diagnostic accuracy is 96% reliable.
  • C) There is a 4% chance of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis.
  • D) The effect size is 0.04.
  • E) The study has 96% power.

Question 4

A study finds no difference in depression scores between two therapies but reports significant improvements in sleep as a secondary outcome. This MOST likely indicates:

  • A) Reporting bias
  • B) Confounding bias
  • C) Selection bias
  • D) Observer bias
  • E) Random error

Question 5

In optimizing the CAGE questionnaire’s likelihood ratio for detecting harmful alcohol use, which cutoff score provides the highest positive likelihood ratio (LR+)?

  • A) 0 (any affirmative response)
  • B) 1
  • C) 2
  • D) 3
  • E) 4

Question 6

Which statistical graph is used in meta-analyses to visually assess heterogeneity across studies?

  • A) Forest plot
  • B) Galbraith plot
  • C) Funnel plot
  • D) Scatterplot
  • E) Box plot

Question 7

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Galbraith plot in systematic reviews?

  • A) Compare treatment effects
  • B) Assess publication bias
  • C) Evaluate heterogeneity
  • D) Visualize publication dates
  • E) Calculate odds ratios

Question 8

A patient answers “No” to 3 CAGE questions. What is the BEST interpretation?

  • A) High specificity for alcohol dependence
  • B) Moderate sensitivity for hazardous drinking
  • C) Low probability of alcohol use disorder
  • D) Confirmatory evidence of sobriety
  • E) Indication for liver function testing

Question 17

A study compares pain levels in three groups: medication A, B, and C. Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Unpaired t-test
  • B) Mann-Whitney U test
  • C) Kruskal-Wallis test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Chi-square test

Question 18

A researcher compares baseline characteristics between treatment and control groups. Which test adjusts for confounding variables like age and sex?

  • A) Unpaired t-test
  • B) ANCOVA
  • C) Chi-square test
  • D) Fisher’s exact test
  • E) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

Question 19

A psychiatrist compares pre- and post-intervention depression scores in two independent groups. Which test is BEST?

  • A) Paired t-test
  • B) Unpaired t-test
  • C) Mann-Whitney U test
  • D) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
  • E) Repeated-measures ANOVA

Question 20

A 2×2 contingency table shows a rare outcome (<5% frequency). Which test is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Chi-square test
  • B) Fisher’s exact test
  • C) McNemar’s test
  • D) Cochran’s Q test
  • E) Mantel-Haenszel test

Question 21

A table reports adjusted odds ratio (OR = 1.5) and unadjusted OR = 2.0. Why is the adjusted OR lower?

  • A) Confounding by age
  • B) Smaller sample size
  • C) Type I error
  • D) Measurement bias
  • E) Random variation

Question 27

Which study design best examines the association between lithium levels and depression severity?

  • A) Case-control
  • B) Cohort
  • C) Ecological
  • D) Cross-sectional
  • E) Meta-analysis

Question 28

Which study design is initially most appropriate to evaluate side effects of a new drug in 3 exposed individuals?

  • A) Case series
  • B) Case-control
  • C) N-of-1 trial
  • D) Cohort
  • E) Randomized controlled trial

Question 32

Two radiologists interpreting MRI results are assessing:

  • A. Concurrent validity
  • B. Content validity
  • C. Inter-rater reliability
  • D. Predictive validity
  • E. Internal consistency

Question 33

A suicide risk tool’s scores correlate with future suicide attempts. This demonstrates:

  • A. Predictive validity
  • B. Concurrent validity
  • C. Content validity
  • D. Construct validity
  • E. Face validity

Question 34

An ROC curve with an AUC of 0.86 and sensitivity of 100 % indicates:

  • A) Poor specificity
  • B) Optimal screening accuracy
  • C) High false-positive rate
  • D) Inadequate discriminative ability
  • E) Superior positive predictive value

Question 61

A 38-year-old man with a 10-year history of schizophrenia presents with galactorrhoea and erectile dysfunction. His current regimen includes procyclidine 20 mg daily and flupentixol depot. What is the next best intervention?

  • A. Add amisulpride
  • B. Discontinue procyclidine
  • C. Switch to aripiprazole
  • D. Reduce flupentixol dose
  • E. Add propranolol

Question 63

A 50-year-old man with treatment-resistant schizophrenia and type 2 diabetes mellitus develops severe orthostatic hypotension. His current antipsychotic is olanzapine. Which agent is preferable for switching?

  • A. Aripiprazole
  • B. Quetiapine
  • C. Haloperidol
  • D. Clozapine
  • E. Risperidone

Question 68

A 16-year-old girl restricts her diet to 800 kcal/day, has a BMI of 17, and believes she is “fat,” but her menstrual cycle remains regular. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

  • A) Anorexia nervosa, restricting type
  • B) Atypical anorexia nervosa
  • C) Bulimia nervosa
  • D) Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID)
  • E) Orthorexia nervosa

Question 69

A 22-year-old woman with anorexia nervosa is found to have severe hypokalemia (K⁺ 2.8 mmol/L). Which complication is MOST concerning?

  • A) Respiratory alkalosis
  • B) Cardiac arrhythmias
  • C) Metabolic acidosis
  • D) Muscle weakness
  • E) Rhabdomyolysis

Question 71

Prader-Willi syndrome follows which inheritance pattern?

  • A) Autosomal recessive
  • B) Maternal uniparental disomy (UPD) of chromosome 15
  • C) Paternal deletion on chromosome 15q11–q13
  • D) X-linked dominant
  • E) Sporadic mutation

Question 73

Genomic imprinting errors explain the etiology of:

  • A) Fragile X syndrome and Prader-Willi syndrome
  • B) Angelman syndrome and Prader-Willi syndrome
  • C) Rett syndrome and Cri-du-chat syndrome
  • D) Down syndrome and Turner syndrome
  • E) Klinefelter syndrome and XYY syndrome

Question 75

A newborn weighs 2 kg, has microcephaly, challenging behaviour, and poor memory. Maternal history reveals chronic alcohol use. Which condition is most likely?

  • A) Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)
  • B) Cocaine exposure
  • C) Maternal smoking
  • D) Valproate teratogenicity
  • E) Lead poisoning

Question 76

True statement regarding Down syndrome inheritance:

  • A) Robertsonian translocation is sporadic
  • B) Trisomy 21 is maternally inherited
  • C) Mosaicism arises from paternal nondisjunction
  • D) Robertsonian translocation can be inherited
  • E) Maternal age is irrelevant

Question 78

ASD heritability is approximately:

  • A) 40%
  • B) 60%
  • C) 90%
  • D) 20%
  • E) 50%

Question 79

A 19-year-old with self-harm scars and hyperuricemia is MOST likely to have:

  • A) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
  • B) Prader-Willi syndrome
  • C) Fragile X syndrome
  • D) Smith-Magenis syndrome
  • E) DiGeorge syndrome

Question 80

A child with macrocephaly, hypotonia, and avoidance of eye contact is MOST suggestive of:

  • A) Fragile X syndrome
  • B) Prader-Willi syndrome
  • C) Autism spectrum disorder
  • D) Williams syndrome
  • E) Rett syndrome

Question 81

A patient with a prominent jaw, self-hugging behavior, and developmental delay is diagnosed with:

  • A) Smith-Magenis syndrome
  • B) Angelman syndrome
  • C) Cri-du-chat syndrome
  • D) Cornelia de Lange syndrome
  • E) Prader-Willi syndrome

Question 82

Which feature is characteristic of Prader-Willi syndrome?

  • A) Hyperphagia and obesity
  • B) Hypertonia and small hands
  • C) Seizures and ataxia
  • D) Immune dysfunction
  • E) Macroglossia

Question 84

A 10-year-old boy presents with hyperuricemia, self-injurious behavior, and choreoathetosis. Which genetic disorder is most likely?

  • A) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
  • B) Rett syndrome
  • C) Fragile X syndrome
  • D) Prader-Willi syndrome
  • E) Angelman syndrome

Question 85

A 6-year-old girl presents with severe intellectual disability, seizures, and a history of losing previously acquired skills (eg, language). She exhibits stereotypic hand-wringing movements and autonomic dysfunction (eg, irregular breathing). Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the MECP2 gene. Which disorder is MOST likely?

  • A) Angelman syndrome
  • B) Rett syndrome
  • C) Down syndrome
  • D) Cri-du-chat syndrome
  • E) Prader-Willi syndrome

Question 86

A 4-year-old girl presents with severe intellectual disability, microcephaly, and a high-pitched cry resembling a cat. On examination, she has hypertelorism and a V-shaped palmar crease. Which genetic disorder is MOST likely?

  • A) Down syndrome
  • B) Cri-du-chat syndrome
  • C) Angelman syndrome
  • D) Prader-Willi syndrome
  • E) Williams syndrome

Question 87

A 14-year-old girl presents with loss of purposeful hand use, autistic features, and seizures. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the MECP2 gene. What is the diagnosis?

  • A) Rett syndrome
  • B) Angelman syndrome
  • C) Cri-du-chat syndrome
  • D) Down syndrome
  • E) Prader-Willi syndrome

Question 88

A 6-year-old girl with intellectual disability and facial papules (adenoma sebaceum) is diagnosed with:

  • A) Neurofibromatosis
  • B) Tuberous sclerosis
  • C) Sturge-Weber syndrome
  • D) Marfan syndrome
  • E) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

Question 89

A 28-year-old man with intellectual disability, facial angiofibromas, and renal angiomyolipomas is diagnosed with which inherited disorder?

  • A) Neurofibromatosis type 1
  • B) Tuberous sclerosis
  • C) Fragile X syndrome
  • D) Marfan syndrome
  • E) Rett syndrome

Question 90

A 10-year-old boy presents with multiple café-au-lait spots, axillary freckling, and Lisch nodules. Which diagnosis is MOST likely?

  • A) Neurofibromatosis type 1
  • B) Tuberous sclerosis
  • C) Sturge-Weber syndrome
  • D) von Hippel-Lindau disease
  • E) Marfan syndrome

Question 93

A meta-analysis uses funnel plot imputation to address publication bias. If missing studies were excluded, the plot would become asymmetric with smaller negative studies missing. Why was imputation performed?

  • A) To correct for type II error inflation
  • B) To balance study arms in a randomized trial
  • C) To improve representativeness of the evidence base
  • D) To reduce heterogeneity among included studies
  • E) To comply with CONSORT reporting standards

Question 94

Which guideline provides standards for reporting systematic reviews and meta-analyses?

  • A) CONSORT
  • B) STROBE
  • C) PRISMA
  • D) MOOSE
  • E) STARD

Question 97

A heroin-dependent man stockpiles benzodiazepines and laxatives after his wife demands he quit. This behavior aligns with which stage of change?

  • A) Pre-contemplation
  • B) Contemplation
  • C) Preparation
  • D) Action
  • E) Maintenance

Question 98

A 16-year-old smoker who insists “I don’t have a problem” best fits which stage of the Transtheoretical Model?

  • A) Contemplation
  • B) Preparation
  • C) Pre-contemplation
  • D) Action
  • E) Relapse

Question 99

In Prochaska’s Transtheoretical Model, which phase involves actively maintaining behavior change?

  • A) Pre-contemplation
  • B) Contemplation
  • C) Preparation
  • D) Action
  • E) Maintenance

Question 100

A 68-year-old woman with Binswanger’s disease would MOST likely exhibit which MRI finding?

  • A) Hippocampal atrophy
  • B) Cortical infarcts
  • C) Diffuse white matter hyperintensities sparing cortex
  • D) Frontotemporal lobar atrophy
  • E) Striatal atrophy

Question 101

A 60-year-old woman with Binswanger’s disease presents with gradual memory decline. Which underlying pathology is MOST likely?

  • A) Beta-amyloid plaques
  • B) Lacunar infarcts
  • C) Frontotemporal lobar degeneration
  • D) Lewy bodies
  • E) Prion protein accumulation

Question 102

A 72-year-old man with hypertension and diabetes presents with progressive cognitive decline, gait apraxia, and urinary incontinence. MRI shows periventricular leukoaraiosis and lacunar infarcts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A) Alzheimer’s disease
  • B) Lewy body dementia
  • C) Vascular dementia (Binswanger’s type)
  • D) Frontotemporal dementia
  • E) Normal pressure hydrocephalus

Question 103

A 65-year-old woman with vascular dementia exhibits apathy and urinary incontinence. Brain MRI shows periventricular white matter hyperintensities. Which subtype is MOST likely?

  • A) Alzheimer’s disease
  • B) Dementia with Lewy bodies
  • C) Frontotemporal dementia
  • D) Binswanger’s disease
  • E) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Question 104

A 30-year-old man presents with progressive limb ataxia, bilateral nystagmus, and a family history of early myocardial infarction. Genetic testing reveals a trinucleotide repeat expansion on chromosome 9. What is the diagnosis?

  • A) Huntington’s disease
  • B) Friedreich’s ataxia
  • C) Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3
  • D) Myotonic dystrophy
  • E) Wilson’s disease

Question 105

A 30-year-old man presents with progressive speech difficulties, gait ataxia, nystagmus, and a family history of a grandfather who died from myocardial infarction at 41. Which genetic disorder is MOST likely?

  • A) Huntington’s disease
  • B) Friedreich’s ataxia
  • C) Spinocerebellar ataxia
  • D) Marfan syndrome
  • E) Wilson’s disease

Question 106

A woman with alcohol dependence and chronic back pain on tramadol requires relapse-prevention medication. Which is the safest choice?

  • A) Naltrexone
  • B) Acamprosate
  • C) Diazepam
  • D) Disulfiram
  • E) Buprenorphine

Question 107

A patient who has completed opioid detoxification and is now fully abstinent seeks medication to maintain opioid abstinence. Which is most appropriate?

  • A) Acamprosate
  • B) Buprenorphine
  • C) Naltrexone
  • D) Methadone
  • E) Lofexidine

Question 108

A patient with a non-dominant (right) parietal lobe lesion most likely presents with:

  • A) Finger agnosia
  • B) Dressing apraxia
  • C) Expressive dysphasia
  • D) Anosognosia
  • E) Gerstmann’s syndrome

Question 109

A 63-year-old man with a right parietal stroke is most likely to exhibit:

  • A) Expressive dysphasia
  • B) Dressing apraxia
  • C) Anosognosia
  • D) Finger agnosia
  • E) Visual agnosia

Question 110

A 50-year-old woman with frontotemporal dementia (FTD) most commonly shows which speech pattern?

  • A) Fluent aphasia
  • B) Apraxia
  • C) Rigidity
  • D) Visual hallucinations
  • E) Bradykinesia

Question 111

A 55-year-old man develops fluent but nonsensical speech with impaired word comprehension and left-temporal atrophy on MRI. Which FTD subtype is this?

  • A) Behavioral variant (Pick’s Disease)
  • B) Primary Progressive Aphasia (Non-fluent/Agrammatic)
  • C) Primary Progressive Aphasia (Semantic)
  • D) Logopenic variant
  • E) Corticobasal syndrome

Question 112

A 68-year-old man with FTD develops fluent but meaningless speech and poor comprehension. Which diagnosis fits best?

  • A) Broca’s aphasia
  • B) Wernicke’s aphasia
  • C) Primary progressive aphasia
  • D) Conduction aphasia
  • E) Global aphasia

Question 113

A 68-year-old man with FTD speaks slowly, with frequent word-finding pauses, but intact single-word comprehension. Which subtype is this?

  • A) Anomic aphasia
  • B) Non-fluent (primary motor) dysphasia
  • C) Wernicke’s aphasia
  • D) Conduction aphasia
  • E) Global aphasia

Question 114

A 70-year-old man with vascular dementia and diabetes mellitus develops delirium. His current medications include risperidone and metformin. Which factor is MOST likely contributing to delirium?

  • A) Hyperglycemia
  • B) Polypharmacy
  • C) Dehydration
  • D) Hypotension
  • E) Infection

Question 115

A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia on clozapine has gained 18 kg in 4 months despite stable psychosis. His BMI is now 32 kg/m². Lifestyle counseling has been offered but not adhered to. What is the next most appropriate intervention?

  • A) Reduce clozapine dose
  • B) Initiate metformin
  • C) Add fluoxetine
  • D) Switch to aripiprazole
  • E) Prescribe orlistat

Question 116

A patient on haloperidol develops akathisia. The FIRST-line treatment is:

  • A) Lorazepam
  • B) Propranolol
  • C) Benztropine
  • D) Amantadine
  • E) Quetiapine

Question 117

A patient on haloperidol develops restlessness and pacing. The first-line treatment is:

  • A) Propranolol
  • B) Tetrabenazine
  • C) Reduce antipsychotic dose
  • D) Lorazepam
  • E) Cyproheptadine

Question 118

Compared to bulimia nervosa, which of the following is TRUE?

  • A) Anorexia has a higher lifetime prevalence
  • B) Bulimia has a younger age of onset
  • C) Anorexia carries a higher mortality rate
  • D) Bulimia shows equal male-to-female ratio
  • E) Binge-eating episodes are shorter in anorexia

Question 119

Which statement regarding the epidemiology of eating disorders is CORRECT?

  • A) Anorexia nervosa is more prevalent than bulimia nervosa.
  • B) Bulimia nervosa typically has an earlier onset than anorexia nervosa.
  • C) Anorexia nervosa is disproportionately prevalent in lower socioeconomic classes.
  • D) Bulimia nervosa is approximately twice as common as anorexia nervosa.
  • E) Cultural globalization has no impact on the incidence of eating disorders.

Question 120

Which statement best describes the prevalence of eating disorders in developed countries?

  • A) Anorexia nervosa is more common than bulimia nervosa
  • B) Bulimia nervosa is more common than anorexia nervosa
  • C) Prevalence is equal across all diagnostic categories
  • D) Incidence is highest in males aged 18–25 years
  • E) Prevalence is static across different socioeconomic strata

Question 121

A 36-year-old man with depression struggles with motivation. Behavioral activation therapy for him will focus on:

  • A) Identifying automatic negative thoughts
  • B) Challenging cognitive distortions
  • C) Addressing TRAP (Trigger, Response, Avoidance Pattern) cycles
  • D) Improving sleep hygiene
  • E) Increasing physical exercise

Question 122

A 30-year-old woman with moderate intellectual disability (ID) presents with aggression toward staff during hygiene routines. A functional behavior assessment (FBA) identifies that aggression occurs when staff insist on bathing her. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Prescribe risperidone
  • B) Implement a desensitization program
  • C) Apply physical restraints during bathing
  • D) Avoid bathing entirely
  • E) Administer benzodiazepines PRN

Question 123

Key difference between sleep terror and nightmare:

  • A) Terror occurs in REM sleep
  • B) Nightmare lacks recall
  • C) Terror lacks recall
  • D) Both occur in NREM
  • E) No physiological arousal

Question 124

A 78-year-old woman with Lewy body dementia presents with frequent falls and vivid nightmares of being chased. Which sleep disorder is MOST likely contributing to her symptoms?

  • A) Sleep apnoea
  • B) REM sleep behavior disorder
  • C) Narcolepsy
  • D) Periodic limb movement disorder
  • E) Insomnia

Question 125

A 65-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease develops violent leg movements during dreams. His wife reports he shouts and strikes out. Which condition is MOST likely?

  • A) Obstructive sleep apnoea
  • B) REM sleep behavior disorder
  • C) Nocturnal seizures
  • D) Night terrors
  • E) Delirium

Question 126

A meta-analysis uses funnel plot imputation to address publication bias. If missing studies were excluded, the plot would become asymmetric with smaller negative studies missing. Why was imputation performed?

  • A) To correct for type II error inflation
  • B) To balance study arms in a randomized trial
  • C) To improve representativeness of the evidence base
  • D) To reduce heterogeneity among included studies
  • E) To comply with CONSORT reporting standards

Question 127

A researcher plots study results from multiple RCTs to assess heterogeneity and publication bias. Which graph is MOST suitable?

  • A) Forest plot
  • B) Funnel plot
  • C) Box plot
  • D) Scatter plot
  • E) Kaplan-Meier plot
MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

Question 1

Dundrum Crisis Scale primarily assesses:

  • A) Suicidal intent
  • B) Risk of violence
  • C) Functional impairment
  • D) Insight
  • E) Medication adherence

Question 10

In evidence-based hierarchy, which study design is ranked HIGHEST?

  • A) Case-control
  • B) Cohort
  • C) Cross-sectional
  • D) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
  • E) Systematic review

Question 11

A meta-analysis assumes fixed effects when:

  • A) Study heterogeneity is high
  • B) Effect sizes vary significantly
  • C) Population and interventions are homogeneous
  • D) Publication bias is present
  • E) Sample sizes are small

Question 12

Which measure of central tendency is MOST appropriate for skewed data (e.g., income distribution)?

  • A) Mean
  • B) Median
  • C) Mode
  • D) Range
  • E) Standard deviation

Question 13

Negative skew in a dataset is indicated by:

  • A) Mean > Mode
  • B) Mean < Mode
  • C) Median = Mean
  • D) Long right tail
  • E) Symmetrical distribution

Question 14

A physician decides to work at a rural clinic instead of a city hospital. This decision BEST illustrates:

  • A) Sunk cost fallacy
  • B) Opportunity cost
  • C) Marginal utility
  • D) Diminishing returns
  • E) Cost-benefit analysis

Question 15

A researcher validates a new depression screening tool against the PHQ-9. Which type of validity are they assessing?

  • A) Predictive validity
  • B) Concurrent validity
  • C) Content validity
  • D) Construct validity
  • E) Criterion validity

Question 2

A clinician adjusts the CAGE cut-off score from 2 to 3. What is the most likely effect on its diagnostic metrics?

  • A) Increased sensitivity, decreased specificity
  • B) Decreased sensitivity, increased specificity
  • C) Increased positive predictive value, unchanged negative predictive value
  • D) Decreased positive predictive value, unchanged sensitivity
  • E) Unchanged specificity, improved reliability

Question 3

A researcher conducts a study to evaluate a new depression screening tool. They report a P-value of 0.04. Which statement accurately interprets this result?

  • A) There is a 4% probability the null hypothesis is true.
  • B) The tool’s diagnostic accuracy is 96% reliable.
  • C) There is a 4% chance of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis.
  • D) The effect size is 0.04.
  • E) The study has 96% power.

Question 4

A study finds no difference in depression scores between two therapies but reports significant improvements in sleep as a secondary outcome. This MOST likely indicates:

  • A) Reporting bias
  • B) Confounding bias
  • C) Selection bias
  • D) Observer bias
  • E) Random error

Question 5

In optimizing the CAGE questionnaire’s likelihood ratio for detecting harmful alcohol use, which cutoff score provides the highest positive likelihood ratio (LR+)?

  • A) 0 (any affirmative response)
  • B) 1
  • C) 2
  • D) 3
  • E) 4

Question 6

Which statistical graph is used in meta-analyses to visually assess heterogeneity across studies?

  • A) Forest plot
  • B) Galbraith plot
  • C) Funnel plot
  • D) Scatterplot
  • E) Box plot

Question 7

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Galbraith plot in systematic reviews?

  • A) Compare treatment effects
  • B) Assess publication bias
  • C) Evaluate heterogeneity
  • D) Visualize publication dates
  • E) Calculate odds ratios

Question 8

A patient answers “No” to 3 CAGE questions. What is the BEST interpretation?

  • A) High specificity for alcohol dependence
  • B) Moderate sensitivity for hazardous drinking
  • C) Low probability of alcohol use disorder
  • D) Confirmatory evidence of sobriety
  • E) Indication for liver function testing

Question 17

A study compares pain levels in three groups: medication A, B, and C. Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Unpaired t-test
  • B) Mann-Whitney U test
  • C) Kruskal-Wallis test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Chi-square test

Question 18

A researcher compares baseline characteristics between treatment and control groups. Which test adjusts for confounding variables like age and sex?

  • A) Unpaired t-test
  • B) ANCOVA
  • C) Chi-square test
  • D) Fisher’s exact test
  • E) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

Question 19

A psychiatrist compares pre- and post-intervention depression scores in two independent groups. Which test is BEST?

  • A) Paired t-test
  • B) Unpaired t-test
  • C) Mann-Whitney U test
  • D) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
  • E) Repeated-measures ANOVA

Question 20

A 2×2 contingency table shows a rare outcome (<5% frequency). Which test is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Chi-square test
  • B) Fisher’s exact test
  • C) McNemar’s test
  • D) Cochran’s Q test
  • E) Mantel-Haenszel test

Question 21

A table reports adjusted odds ratio (OR = 1.5) and unadjusted OR = 2.0. Why is the adjusted OR lower?

  • A) Confounding by age
  • B) Smaller sample size
  • C) Type I error
  • D) Measurement bias
  • E) Random variation

Question 27

Which study design best examines the association between lithium levels and depression severity?

  • A) Case-control
  • B) Cohort
  • C) Ecological
  • D) Cross-sectional
  • E) Meta-analysis

Question 28

Which study design is initially most appropriate to evaluate side effects of a new drug in 3 exposed individuals?

  • A) Case series
  • B) Case-control
  • C) N-of-1 trial
  • D) Cohort
  • E) Randomized controlled trial

Question 32

Two radiologists interpreting MRI results are assessing:

  • A. Concurrent validity
  • B. Content validity
  • C. Inter-rater reliability
  • D. Predictive validity
  • E. Internal consistency

Question 33

A suicide risk tool’s scores correlate with future suicide attempts. This demonstrates:

  • A. Predictive validity
  • B. Concurrent validity
  • C. Content validity
  • D. Construct validity
  • E. Face validity

Question 34

An ROC curve with an AUC of 0.86 and sensitivity of 100 % indicates:

  • A) Poor specificity
  • B) Optimal screening accuracy
  • C) High false-positive rate
  • D) Inadequate discriminative ability
  • E) Superior positive predictive value

Question 35

A loneliness measure correlates with depression (r = 0.38). What does this indicate?

  • A) Depression causes loneliness
  • B) A moderate positive association exists
  • C) Loneliness predicts depression onset
  • D) Shared measurement bias
  • E) No clinically meaningful relationship

Question 36

A study investigates hours of sleep vs. cognitive performance in older adults. The correlation coefficient is reported as –0.85. What does this indicate?

  • A) Strong positive linear relationship
  • B) Weak negative linear relationship
  • C) No relationship
  • D) Strong negative linear relationship
  • E) Perfect inverse relationship

Question 37

A depressed inpatient scores highly on both Scale A (100-item) and Scale B (12-item) with Spearman’s ρ = 0.8 (p < 0.01). Which conclusion is MOST valid?

  • A) Scale B is a reliable replacement for Scale A
  • B) Both scales show excellent inter-rater reliability
  • C) A and B are highly positively correlated
  • D) Scale A is more valid than Scale B
  • E) No conclusion can be drawn about validity

Question 38

Two depression screening tools show Spearman’s ρ = 0.81. What does this imply?

  • A) High inter-rater reliability
  • B) Strong positive correlation
  • C) Good predictive validity
  • D) High sensitivity
  • E) Low specificity

Question 39

An r value of –1 indicates:

  • A) Perfect positive correlation
  • B) Perfect negative correlation
  • C) Moderate positive correlation
  • D) No correlation
  • E) Weak negative correlation

Question 40

A researcher finds a correlation coefficient of –0.9 between alcohol consumption and liver enzyme levels. What does this indicate?

  • A) Strong inverse relationship
  • B) Weak direct relationship
  • C) No relationship
  • D) Moderate inverse relationship
  • E) Perfect direct relationship

Question 41

In a scatter plot of age vs. cognitive scores, the trend line has an R value of 0.7. What does this indicate?

  • A) Weak positive correlation
  • B) Strong positive correlation
  • C) Weak negative correlation
  • D) Strong negative correlation
  • E) No correlation

Question 42

A Kendall’s tau-b coefficient of 0.45 is reported between pain severity (ordinal) and sleep quality (ordinal). What does this indicate?

  • A) No association
  • B) Moderate positive association
  • C) Pain explains 45% of sleep variance
  • D) The association is coincidental
  • E) A parametric test would yield a stronger correlation

Question 43

A researcher uses Kendall’s coefficient for depression severity (Likert) vs. quality of life (ordinal). What is the PRIMARY advantage of this method?

  • A) Assumes normal distribution
  • B) Measures non-linear associations
  • C) Handles tied ranks without bias
  • D) Compares group means
  • E) Requires parametric assumptions

Question 44

Which statistical test is MOST appropriate for assessing the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two continuous variables?

  • A) Spearman’s rank correlation
  • B) Pearson’s correlation
  • C) Chi-square test
  • D) Student’s t-test
  • E) ANOVA

Question 45

Which statistical method is Kendall’s coefficient used for?

  • A) Parametric correlation
  • B) Non-parametric correlation for ordinal data
  • C) Paired t-test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Regression analysis

Question 46

A study on childhood sexual abuse vs. adult depression reports r = 0.35 (p = 0.04). Which interpretation is MOST accurate?

  • A) 35% chance abuse causes depression
  • B) Statistically significant association, but causality unclear
  • C) Abuse explains 35% of depression cases
  • D) Result due to chance
  • E) Larger sample would eliminate the association

Question 47

A researcher compares baseline HAMD scores across three timepoints. Which statistical method is MOST suitable?

  • A) Repeated-measures ANOVA
  • B) Mann-Whitney U test
  • C) Pearson correlation
  • D) Chi-square test
  • E) Linear regression

Question 48

A longitudinal study assesses behavioral problems at ages 3, 5, and 7 linked to bedtime schedules, reporting regression coefficients (β = –0.8, p < 0.01; β = –0.6, p = 0.03; β = –0.4, p = 0.12). Which analysis is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Logistic regression
  • B) Linear regression
  • C) Cox proportional hazards
  • D) Chi-square test
  • E) ANOVA

Question 49

A study evaluates blood pressure (BP) and cognitive decline in older adults, adjusting for age. Which statistical method is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Linear regression with BP as the dependent variable
  • B) Logistic regression with cognitive decline as binary
  • C) Multiple linear regression including age as a covariate
  • D) Spearman’s correlation
  • E) ANOVA

Question 50

A study analyzes time-to-event data for patients with heart failure. Which statistical method is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Cox proportional hazards model
  • B) Logistic regression
  • C) Linear regression
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Chi-square test

Question 51

Why is logistic regression used in a study predicting diabetes diagnosis (binary outcome)?

  • A) To model continuous outcomes
  • B) To handle multicollinearity
  • C) To assess proportional hazards
  • D) To predict binary outcomes
  • E) To adjust for confounding

Question 52

Two radiologists interpret MRI results independently. Which property are they assessing?

  • A) Concurrent validity
  • B) Content validity
  • C) Inter-rater reliability
  • D) Predictive validity
  • E) Internal consistency

Question 53

A suicide-risk tool’s scores correlate with future suicide attempts. This demonstrates:

  • A) Predictive validity
  • B) Concurrent validity
  • C) Content validity
  • D) Construct validity
  • E) Face validity

Question 54

A researcher validates a new depression screening tool against the PHQ-9 (administered simultaneously). Which validity is being assessed?

  • A) Predictive validity
  • B) Concurrent validity
  • C) Content validity
  • D) Construct validity
  • E) Criterion validity

Question 55

A new anxiety scale is tested alongside clinician diagnoses. Which validity ensures it covers all aspects of anxiety?

  • A) Concurrent validity
  • B) Predictive validity
  • C) Content validity
  • D) Discriminant validity
  • E) Test-retest validity

Question 56

A clinician administers a new bipolar-disorder screener and the SCID concurrently. Which validity is assessed?

  • A) Predictive validity
  • B) Concurrent validity
  • C) Construct validity
  • D) Content validity
  • E) Divergent validity

Question 57

An ADHD screener shows high correlation with autism-spectrum measures. Which validity is MOST compromised?

  • A) Convergent validity
  • B) Divergent validity
  • C) Criterion validity
  • D) Internal consistency
  • E) Face validity

Question 58

If a new depression scale shows perfect correlation with an existing validated tool, which validity is demonstrated?

  • A) Face validity
  • B) Predictive validity
  • C) Concurrent validity
  • D) Construct validity
  • E) Ecological validity

Question 59

A researcher validates a new depression screening tool by comparing its scores to a clinician’s diagnosis made simultaneously. This evaluates which type of validity?

  • A) Predictive
  • B) Concurrent
  • C) Content
  • D) Construct
  • E) Criterion-related

Question 60

A researcher validates a new depression screening tool by administering it alongside an established, validated questionnaire during the same assessment period. This method primarily evaluates:

  • A) Predictive validity
  • B) Concurrent validity
  • C) Content validity
  • D) Construct validity
  • E) Incremental validity

Question 61

In a longitudinal study, scores on a cognitive test administered at age 10 are correlated with academic achievement at age 20. This design primarily examines:

  • A) Content validity
  • B) Predictive validity
  • C) Concurrent validity
  • D) Divergent validity
  • E) Internal consistency

Question 62

What is the BEST screening tool for alcohol use disorders in primary care?

  • A) GGT
  • B) CDT
  • C) MCV
  • D) AUDIT
  • E) Breathalyser

Question 63

Which therapy routinely incorporates telephone contact as a core component?

  • A) Dialectical behaviour therapy
  • B) Cognitive behavioural therapy
  • C) Psychoanalytic psychotherapy
  • D) Interpersonal psychotherapy
  • E) Cognitive analytic therapy

Question 64

Past family therapy approaches were most influenced by which therapeutic tradition?

  • A) Cognitive-behavioural therapy
  • B) Psychodynamic psychotherapy
  • C) Humanistic therapy
  • D) Systemic therapy
  • E) Solution-focused therapy

Question 65

Sequential diagrammatic formulation (SD), a tool in CAT, involves which three stages?

  • A) Reformulation, recognition, revision
  • B) Cognitive restructuring, exposure, response prevention
  • C) Psychoeducation, validation, integration
  • D) Behavioral activation, mindfulness, relapse prevention
  • E) Transference-focused, countertransference analysis

Question 66

The “3 R’s” in Cognitive Analytic Therapy are:

  • A) Reflection, Reconnection, Resolution
  • B) Reformulation, Recognition, Revision
  • C) Relabeling, Restructuring, Reinforcement
  • D) Regression, Reintegration, Realignment
  • E) Reassurance, Responsibility, Reconciliation

Question 67

Which of the following is a core “R” in CAT?

  • A) Reformulation
  • B) Role Reversal
  • C) Recognition
  • D) Revision
  • E) Recall

Question 68

Which intervention is MOST effective for emotional dysregulation in borderline personality disorder?

  • A) Flooding
  • B) Systematic desensitization
  • C) Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
  • D) Cognitive‐behavioural therapy (CBT)
  • E) Risperidone

Question 69

A core technique in Motivational Interviewing is:

  • A) Rolling with resistance
  • B) Amplifying cognitive dissonance
  • C) Contingency management
  • D) Developing discrepancy
  • E) Avoidance restructuring

Question 70

A motivational interviewing approach to substance misuse would LEAST likely involve:

  • A) Exploring ambivalence
  • B) Rolling with resistance
  • C) Providing tangible rewards for abstinence
  • D) Eliciting intrinsic motivation
  • E) Collaborative goal-setting

Question 71

A psychotherapy model focusing on past family experiences is:

  • A) Couples behaviour therapy
  • B) Psychodynamic psychotherapy
  • C) Cognitive-behavioural therapy
  • D) Family systems therapy
  • E) Solution-focused therapy

Question 72

Regarding brief IPT, which statement is CORRECT?

  • A) Sessions last 90 minutes weekly for 6 weeks
  • B) Focuses on past traumas
  • C) Requires 1-hour sessions for 12–16 weeks
  • D) Avoids transference work
  • E) Uses cognitive restructuring

Question 73

IPT for depression primarily focuses on addressing:

  • A) Cognitive distortions
  • B) Grief and interpersonal role disputes
  • C) Behavioral activation
  • D) Sleep hygiene
  • E) Trauma processing

Question 74

IPT for grief focuses on:

  • A) Cognitive restructuring of negative thoughts
  • B) Enhancing interpersonal relationships and social support
  • C) Behavioral activation through exposure
  • D) Mindfulness and acceptance
  • E) Psychodynamic exploration of past trauma

Question 75

A patient displays intense anger toward their therapist, accusing them of betrayal. This MOST likely reflects:

  • A) Countertransference
  • B) Transference
  • C) Projection
  • D) Acting out
  • E) Resistance

Question 76

A therapist feels intense anger toward a patient discussing abusive relationships. This emotional reaction is best termed:

  • A) Transference
  • B) Countertransference
  • C) Projection
  • D) Displacement
  • E) Reaction formation

Question 77

Countertransference refers to:

  • A) The patient’s feelings toward the therapist
  • B) The therapist’s unconscious emotional response to the patient
  • C) Transference of past relationships onto the therapist
  • D) Resistance to treatment
  • E) A defense mechanism

Question 78

A 28-year-old woman with congenital long QT syndrome presents with syncope. Her ECG reveals a significantly prolonged QTc interval. Which electrolyte disturbance is most likely contributing to this finding?

  • A. Hypocalcaemia
  • B. Hyperkalaemia
  • C. Hypomagnesaemia
  • D. Hypophosphataemia
  • E. Hypercalcaemia

Question 79

A 70-year-old woman with Alzheimer's dementia taking donepezil faints. Her ECG shows regular sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 45 bpm. What is the MOST likely cause?

  • A. Sinus tachycardia
  • B. Sinus bradycardia
  • C. Atrial fibrillation
  • D. Ventricular tachycardia
  • E. Complete heart block

Question 80

An 85-year-old man on donepezil develops dizziness and a sinus bradycardia (HR 45 bpm). Which ECG finding is MOST consistent with his medication?

  • A. QT prolongation
  • B. Sinus bradycardia
  • C. Atrial fibrillation
  • D. ST elevation
  • E. Right axis deviation

Question 81

An 80-year-old on donepezil 10 mg reports nausea and dizziness. The next step is:

  • A. Add an antiemetic
  • B. Switch to rivastigmine
  • C. Reduce dose to 5 mg
  • D. Discontinue memantine
  • E. Initiate beta-blockers

Question 82

A patient on lithium presents with polyuria, tremor, and myoclonus. Serum lithium level is 1.5 mmol/L. Which toxicity sign is MOST concerning?

  • A) Polyuria (>3 L/day)
  • B) Fine tremor
  • C) Myoclonic jerks
  • D) Abdominal pain
  • E) Confusion

Question 83

A patient with lithium toxicity presents with coarse tremors and nystagmus. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a feature?

  • A) Ataxia
  • B) Dysarthria
  • C) Hyporeflexia
  • D) Confusion
  • E) Seizures

Question 84

Severe lithium toxicity is MOST likely associated with:

  • A) Coarse tremor, confusion, and GI upset
  • B) Bradycardia, hypotension, and seizures
  • C) Hyperreflexia, muscle rigidity, and hyperthermia
  • D) Ataxia, nystagmus, and slurred speech
  • E) Polyuria, polydipsia, and renal failure

Question 85

Which medication is MOST likely to potentiate the therapeutic effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) by lowering the seizure threshold?

  • A) Lithium
  • B) Clozapine
  • C) Lamotrigine
  • D) Escitalopram
  • E) Valproate

Question 86

A 55-year-old man on clozapine 1,200 µ g/day develops generalized tonic‐clonic seizures. What is the NEXT step?

  • A) Stop clozapine immediately
  • B) Add valproate
  • C) Reduce clozapine dose
  • D) Start phenytoin
  • E) Monitor without intervention

Question 87

Which antidepressant should be avoided with tamoxifen in a breast cancer survivor?

  • A) Amitriptyline
  • B) Fluoxetine
  • C) Sertraline
  • D) Mirtazapine
  • E) Venlafaxine

Question 88

Antipsychotic choice for an 80-year-old with eGFR >25 mL/min:

  • A. Olanzapine
  • B. Haloperidol
  • C. Amisulpride
  • D. Sulpiride
  • E. Quetiapine

Question 89

A 72-year-old man with Lewy Body Dementia develops rigidity and confusion after starting risperidone. What is the NEXT step?

  • A) Continue risperidone
  • B) Switch to quetiapine
  • C) Add benztropine
  • D) Discontinue antipsychotics
  • E) Initiate electroconvulsive therapy

Question 90

A patient with chronic alcohol use presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and nystagmus. Which receptor system is MOST implicated in their neurological symptoms?

  • A. GABA-A and NMDA
  • B. Dopamine D2
  • C. Serotonin 5-HT2A
  • D. Acetylcholine
  • E. Glutamate AMPA
MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

MRCPsych Paper B - 21 May 2025

Question 1

Dundrum Crisis Scale primarily assesses:

  • A) Suicidal intent
  • B) Risk of violence
  • C) Functional impairment
  • D) Insight
  • E) Medication adherence

Question 10

In evidence-based hierarchy, which study design is ranked HIGHEST?

  • A) Case-control
  • B) Cohort
  • C) Cross-sectional
  • D) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
  • E) Systematic review

Question 11

A meta-analysis assumes fixed effects when:

  • A) Study heterogeneity is high
  • B) Effect sizes vary significantly
  • C) Population and interventions are homogeneous
  • D) Publication bias is present
  • E) Sample sizes are small

Question 12

Which measure of central tendency is MOST appropriate for skewed data (e.g., income distribution)?

  • A) Mean
  • B) Median
  • C) Mode
  • D) Range
  • E) Standard deviation

Question 13

Negative skew in a dataset is indicated by:

  • A) Mean > Mode
  • B) Mean < Mode
  • C) Median = Mean
  • D) Long right tail
  • E) Symmetrical distribution

Question 14

A physician decides to work at a rural clinic instead of a city hospital. This decision BEST illustrates:

  • A) Sunk cost fallacy
  • B) Opportunity cost
  • C) Marginal utility
  • D) Diminishing returns
  • E) Cost-benefit analysis

Question 15

A researcher validates a new depression screening tool against the PHQ-9. Which type of validity are they assessing?

  • A) Predictive validity
  • B) Concurrent validity
  • C) Content validity
  • D) Construct validity
  • E) Criterion validity

Question 2

A clinician adjusts the CAGE cut-off score from 2 to 3. What is the most likely effect on its diagnostic metrics?

  • A) Increased sensitivity, decreased specificity
  • B) Decreased sensitivity, increased specificity
  • C) Increased positive predictive value, unchanged negative predictive value
  • D) Decreased positive predictive value, unchanged sensitivity
  • E) Unchanged specificity, improved reliability

Question 3

A researcher conducts a study to evaluate a new depression screening tool. They report a P-value of 0.04. Which statement accurately interprets this result?

  • A) There is a 4% probability the null hypothesis is true.
  • B) The tool’s diagnostic accuracy is 96% reliable.
  • C) There is a 4% chance of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis.
  • D) The effect size is 0.04.
  • E) The study has 96% power.

Question 4

A study finds no difference in depression scores between two therapies but reports significant improvements in sleep as a secondary outcome. This MOST likely indicates:

  • A) Reporting bias
  • B) Confounding bias
  • C) Selection bias
  • D) Observer bias
  • E) Random error

Question 5

In optimizing the CAGE questionnaire’s likelihood ratio for detecting harmful alcohol use, which cutoff score provides the highest positive likelihood ratio (LR+)?

  • A) 0 (any affirmative response)
  • B) 1
  • C) 2
  • D) 3
  • E) 4

Question 6

Which statistical graph is used in meta-analyses to visually assess heterogeneity across studies?

  • A) Forest plot
  • B) Galbraith plot
  • C) Funnel plot
  • D) Scatterplot
  • E) Box plot

Question 7

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Galbraith plot in systematic reviews?

  • A) Compare treatment effects
  • B) Assess publication bias
  • C) Evaluate heterogeneity
  • D) Visualize publication dates
  • E) Calculate odds ratios

Question 8

A patient answers “No” to 3 CAGE questions. What is the BEST interpretation?

  • A) High specificity for alcohol dependence
  • B) Moderate sensitivity for hazardous drinking
  • C) Low probability of alcohol use disorder
  • D) Confirmatory evidence of sobriety
  • E) Indication for liver function testing

Question 17

A study compares pain levels in three groups: medication A, B, and C. Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Unpaired t-test
  • B) Mann-Whitney U test
  • C) Kruskal-Wallis test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Chi-square test

Question 18

A researcher compares baseline characteristics between treatment and control groups. Which test adjusts for confounding variables like age and sex?

  • A) Unpaired t-test
  • B) ANCOVA
  • C) Chi-square test
  • D) Fisher’s exact test
  • E) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

Question 19

A psychiatrist compares pre- and post-intervention depression scores in two independent groups. Which test is BEST?

  • A) Paired t-test
  • B) Unpaired t-test
  • C) Mann-Whitney U test
  • D) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
  • E) Repeated-measures ANOVA

Question 20

A 2×2 contingency table shows a rare outcome (<5% frequency). Which test is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Chi-square test
  • B) Fisher’s exact test
  • C) McNemar’s test
  • D) Cochran’s Q test
  • E) Mantel-Haenszel test

Question 21

A table reports adjusted odds ratio (OR = 1.5) and unadjusted OR = 2.0. Why is the adjusted OR lower?

  • A) Confounding by age
  • B) Smaller sample size
  • C) Type I error
  • D) Measurement bias
  • E) Random variation

Question 27

Which study design best examines the association between lithium levels and depression severity?

  • A) Case-control
  • B) Cohort
  • C) Ecological
  • D) Cross-sectional
  • E) Meta-analysis

Question 28

Which study design is initially most appropriate to evaluate side effects of a new drug in 3 exposed individuals?

  • A) Case series
  • B) Case-control
  • C) N-of-1 trial
  • D) Cohort
  • E) Randomized controlled trial

Question 32

Two radiologists interpreting MRI results are assessing:

  • A. Concurrent validity
  • B. Content validity
  • C. Inter-rater reliability
  • D. Predictive validity
  • E. Internal consistency

Question 33

A suicide risk tool’s scores correlate with future suicide attempts. This demonstrates:

  • A. Predictive validity
  • B. Concurrent validity
  • C. Content validity
  • D. Construct validity
  • E. Face validity

Question 34

An ROC curve with an AUC of 0.86 and sensitivity of 100 % indicates:

  • A) Poor specificity
  • B) Optimal screening accuracy
  • C) High false-positive rate
  • D) Inadequate discriminative ability
  • E) Superior positive predictive value

Question 35

A researcher surveys 500 adults about their diet and exercise habits on a single day. This is an example of which study type?

  • A) Longitudinal cohort
  • B) Cross-sectional
  • C) Case-control
  • D) Ecological
  • E) Quasi-experimental

Question 36

To evaluate the impact of parental neglect on childhood depression prospectively while minimising recall bias, which design is best?

  • A) Cross-sectional survey
  • B) Retrospective case-control study
  • C) Prospective cohort study
  • D) Randomized controlled trial
  • E) Ecological study

Question 37

A study compares ECT use in patients with and without a history of stroke; expected cell sizes are < 5. Which test is most suitable?

  • A. Chi-square test
  • B. Fisher’s exact test
  • C. t-test
  • D. Mann-Whitney U test
  • E. ANOVA

Question 38

A clinician raises the CAGE threshold from ≥ 2 to ≥ 3 “yes” responses. Primary effect?

  • A. ↑ Sensitivity, ↓ Specificity
  • B. ↓ Sensitivity, ↑ Specificity
  • C. ↑ PPV, unchanged sensitivity
  • D. ↓ NPV, unchanged specificity
  • E. Unchanged sensitivity, ↑ Specificity

Question 39

In a 10 % prevalence setting, a test with 95 % sensitivity and 5 % false-positive rate (specificity = 95 %) yields what post-test probability after a positive?

  • A. 58 %
  • B. 68 %
  • C. 70 %
  • D. 85 %
  • E. 95 %

Question 40

A depression screen has Sens = 90 %, Spec = 75 %. Positive likelihood ratio?

  • A. 1.2
  • B. 3.0
  • C. 4.0
  • D. 6.0
  • E. 9.0

Question 41

A diabetes screen with NPV = 95 % means:

  • A. 95 % of patients without diabetes will test negative
  • B. 95% of patients with diabetes will test positive
  • C. There is a 95% chance of a false positive
  • D. The test is 95% reliable
  • E. The positive predictive value is 5%

Question 42

For a test with Sens = 90 % and Spec = 95 %, likelihood ratios are:

  • A) +LR 18, −LR 0.10
  • B) +LR 9, −LR 0.05
  • C) +LR 18, −LR 0.05
  • D) +LR 9, −LR 0.10
  • E) +LR 5, −LR 0.15

Question 43

Delirium screen Sens = 60 %, Spec = 80 %. Negative LR?

  • A. 0.5
  • B. 1.25
  • C. 1.67
  • D. 2.5
  • E. 0.25

Question 44

A study’s ROC plots specificity (not 1 − specificity) on the x-axis; AUC = 0.8. This indicates:

  • A. High diagnostic accuracy
  • B. Low sensitivity
  • C. Poor specificity
  • D. Inadequate discriminative ability
  • E. Need for more data

Question 46

Which guideline ensures transparent reporting of sensitivity/specificity in diagnostic studies?

  • A. CONSORT
  • B. PRISMA
  • C. STARD
  • D. MOOSE
  • E. TREND

Question 47

The probability that a patient with a negative test truly lacks the disease is:

  • A) Sensitivity
  • B) Specificity
  • C) PPV
  • D) NPV
  • E) Likelihood ratio

Question 48

A forest plot shows a pooled effect size with a narrow confidence interval crossing the null. What does this suggest?

  • A) High heterogeneity among studies
  • B) Statistically insignificant result
  • C) Strong evidence for efficacy
  • D) Publication bias
  • E) Large sample size

Question 49

A study compares two treatments for depression. Group A (n=214) receives mirtazapine, with 46/214 dropouts due to side effects; Group B (n=217) receives placebo, with 9/217 dropouts. What is the Number Needed to Harm (NNH)?

  • A) 5
  • B) 6
  • C) 7
  • D) 8
  • E) 9

Question 50

A depressed inpatient scores highly on both Scale A (100-item) and Scale B (12-item) with Spearman's ρ = 0.8 (p < 0.01). Which conclusion is MOST valid?

  • A. Scale B is a reliable replacement for Scale A
  • B. Both scales show excellent inter-rater reliability
  • C. A and B are highly linearly correlated
  • D. Scale A is more valid than Scale B
  • E. No conclusion can be drawn about validity

Question 51

A researcher compares mean cognitive scores across three groups (healthy controls, mild cognitive impairment, and Alzheimer's disease). Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

  • A. Wilcoxon signed-rank test
  • B. ANOVA
  • C. Chi-square test
  • D. Mann-Whitney U test
  • E. Kruskal-Wallis test

Question 52

A study evaluates pain relief in 15 patients before and after acupuncture. Which test is MOST suitable?

  • A. Paired t-test
  • B. Wilcoxon signed-rank (rank sum) test
  • C. Chi-square test
  • D. Student's t-test
  • E. Regression analysis

Question 53

A psychiatrist compares smoking rates (smokers vs. non-smokers) in patients with schizophrenia vs. controls. Which test is MOST appropriate?

  • A. Chi-square test
  • B. ANOVA
  • C. Mann-Whitney U test
  • D. t-test
  • E. Regression analysis

Question 54

Which statistical test compares means across three independent ordinal groups (e.g., consultants, nurses, patients)?

  • A) Paired t-test
  • B) One-way ANOVA
  • C) Kruskal-Wallis test
  • D) Chi-square test
  • E) Logistic regression

Question 55

A researcher compares baseline Hamilton Depression Rating Scale scores across three timepoints. Which statistical method is MOST suitable?

  • A) Repeated-measures ANOVA
  • B) Mann-Whitney U test
  • C) Pearson correlation
  • D) Chi-square test
  • E) Linear regression

Question 56

Which statistical test is MOST appropriate for analyzing data that follows a normal distribution?

  • A) Mann-Whitney U test
  • B) Kruskal-Wallis test
  • C) Parametric ANOVA
  • D) Spearman’s rank correlation
  • E) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

Question 57

A study compares mortality rates between two intensive care units using a dichotomous outcome (survived/deceased). Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Paired t-test
  • B) Mann-Whitney U test
  • C) Chi-square test
  • D) Pearson correlation
  • E) ANOVA

Question 58

A researcher compares mean blood glucose levels between three groups (healthy controls, prediabetes, and diabetes). Which statistical test is MOST appropriate?

  • A) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
  • B) ANOVA
  • C) Chi-square test
  • D) Mann-Whitney U test
  • E) Kruskal-Wallis test

Question 59

A study evaluates pain relief in 20 patients before and after acupuncture. Which test is MOST suitable?

  • A) Paired t-test
  • B) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
  • C) Chi-square test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Student’s t-test

Question 60

A study of 1,054 schizophrenia patients categorizes them into three groups, including suicide attempters. Which statistical test is MOST appropriate to evaluate suicide risk factors?

  • A) Chi-square test
  • B) t-test
  • C) ANOVA
  • D) Logistic regression
  • E) Cox proportional hazards model

Question 61

A trial compares CBT and DBT for binge-eating disorder. Which statistical test is most appropriate to compare remission rates (non-normal distribution)?

  • A) Mann-Whitney U test
  • B) Independent t-test
  • C) Chi-square test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Pearson correlation

Question 62

Which statistical test is MOST appropriate for analyzing the relationship between two ordinal variables?

  • A) Pearson’s correlation
  • B) Spearman’s rank correlation
  • C) Student’s t-test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Chi-square test

Question 63

Which statistical test is used to compare proportions between two categorical groups (e.g., treatment success vs. failure)?

  • A) Paired t-test
  • B) Mann-Whitney U test
  • C) Chi-square test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Pearson correlation

Question 64

Three electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) modalities (bilateral, unilateral, ultrabrief) are compared for treatment-resistant depression. The outcome is remission rates. Which statistical test is MOST suitable?

  • A) Paired t-test
  • B) Mann-Whitney U test
  • C) Chi-square test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Pearson correlation

Question 65

A patient with chronic alcohol use presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and nystagmus. Which receptor system is MOST implicated in their neurological symptoms?

  • A) GABA-A and NMDA
  • B) Dopamine D2
  • C) Serotonin 5-HT2A
  • D) Acetylcholine
  • E) Glutamate AMPA

Question 66

Which statistical test is MOST appropriate to compare categorical data (ECT vs. stroke occurrence) between two independent groups?

  • A) Pearson’s chi-square
  • B) Student’s t-test
  • C) Mann-Whitney U test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Fisher’s exact test

Question 67

Which statistical test does NOT assume normal data distribution?

  • A) Student’s t-test
  • B) Pearson’s correlation
  • C) Mann-Whitney U test
  • D) ANOVA
  • E) Linear regression
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